H 2017 Flashcards by Matthew Snow (2024)

(1) Which of the following is a technique that uses a systematic comparison of two
money flows: A) the amount any one section of the community is paying into the local
treasury through taxes; B) the cost of services to the community?
(A) Cost-Benefit Analysis
(B) Goals Achievement Matrix
(C) Cost-Revenue Analysis
(D) Management by Objectives

The correct answer is “C”
Cost revenue analysis focuses on the costs and revenues associated with a specific form of
growth. The result of such an analysis is a statement of net governmental surplus or deficit
expressed in purely financial terms. Fiscal Impact Analysis is often used interchangeably with
“Cost-Revenue Analysis”.
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Manual, p. 161.
http://books.google.com/books?id=zH6lslEBF0oC&pg=PA3&lpg=PA3&dq=%22cost+revenue+a
nalysis%22+%22fiscal+impact+analysis%22+difference&source=bl&ots=ETw4QrkEjZ&sig=035
qK3DjxAZbsCsypAT2XVTL6Hg&hl=en&sa=X&ei=gStdVNmUOcKhgwT0wIEI&ved=0CCQQ6AE
wAQ#v=onepage&q=%22cost%20revenue%20analysis%22%20%22fiscal%20impact%20analy
sis%22%20difference&f=false

(2) Place the following generations in order from youngest to oldest:
I. Generation X
II. Millennials
III. Baby Boomers
IV. Silent Generation
(A) I, IV, II, III
(B) IV, III, I, II
(C) II, III, I, IV
(D) II, I, III, IV

The correct answer is “D”
Millennials, also known as the Millennial Generation, Echo/Shadow Boomers (i.e.
because they are the children of Baby Boomers), or Generation Y, is the demographic cohort
following Generation X. Commentators use birth dates ranging from the early 1980s to the early
2000s.
Generation X, commonly abbreviated to Gen X, is the generation born after the Western
Post–World War II baby boom. Demographers, historians and commentators use birth dates
ranging from the early 1960s to the early 1980s.
The Baby Boomers are the generation that was born following World War II, generally
from 1946 up to 1964, a time that was marked by an increase in birth rates. In the 1960s, as the
relatively large numbers of young people became teenagers and young adults, they, and those
around them, created a very specific rhetoric around their cohort, and the change they were
bringing about.
The Silent Generation, also known as the Lucky Few, were born from approximately
1925 until 1942. It includes some who fought in World War II, most of those who fought the
Korean War and many during the Vietnam War.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generation#Western_world

(3) Surveying by social media runs the risk of:
(A) Sampling error
(B) Sample bias
(C) Systematic bias
(D) Exclusion error

The correct answer is “B”
Bias is a term often confused with sampling error. Sampling error is the natural consequence
arising out of the fact that sample size is much less when compared to the population size. The
sampling error can thus be minimized by increasing the size of the sample. The inaccuracy
caused in the estimates of population parameters attributed to bias is more systematic.
Bias is the systematic error resulting in deviation in estimates of population parameters caused
by faulty design and/or deficient execution of sampling process. The bias is not a result of
sample size and hence increasing the sample size will not reduce bias in estimates. For
example, if you only share a link to your survey via social media, it’s very likely you are biasing
your results. Chances are, not all of your customers have social media accounts. Further, only a
fraction of those that do, will have liked or followed your company page. In survey methodology
terms, this is called Sampling Bias, which is introduced when some members of your intended
population are less likely to be surveyed than others.
https://help.surveygizmo.com/help/survey-bias
http://math.tutorvista.com/statistics/bias.html

(4) The capitalization rate may be computed using which of the following?
A) Net operating income and purchase price
B) Permanent loan amount and annual debt service
C) Purchase price and permanent loan amount
D) Maximum gross rent and operating expense

The correct answer is “A”
The overall capitalization rate is defined as an “income rate for a total property interest that reflects
the relationship between a single year’s net operating income and the total property price or value”.

(5) Riparian rights:
I. Right of access for swimming, boating and fishing
II. Principal western water right law
III. Right to make reasonable use of water as it flows through or over one’s property
IV. First in time, first in right
(A) I, III
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III

The correct answer is “A”
RIPARIAN water rights (or simply riparian rights) is a system for allocating water among those
who possess land along its path. Under the riparian principle, all landowners whose properties
adjoin a body of water have the right to make reasonable use of it as it flows through, under, or
over their properties. These rights cannot be sold or transferred other than with the adjoining
land and only in reasonable quantities associated with that land. Riparian rights include such
things as the right to access for swimming, boating and fishing; the right to wharf out to a point
of navigability; the right to erect structures such as docks, piers, and boat lifts; the right to use
the water for domestic purposes; the right to accretions caused by water level fluctuations; the
right to exclusive use if the waterbody is non-navigable. Riparian rights also depend upon
“reasonable use” as it relates to other riparian owners to ensure that the rights of one riparian
owner are weighed fairly and equitably with the rights of adjacent riparian owners.
PRIOR APPROPRIATION water rights is the legal doctrine that the first person to take a
quantity of water from a water source for “beneficial use”—agricultural, industrial or household
—has the right to continue to use that quantity of water for that purpose (i.e. “First in time, First
in Right”). Subsequent users can take the remaining water for their own beneficial use provided
that they do not impinge on the rights of previous users. This doctrine developed in the western
states of the United States. These water rights are different from riparian water rights, which are
applied in the rest of the United States.
ZONING PRACTICE (August 2009); Water Rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riparian_water_rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prior-appropriation_water_rights
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9131532/

(6) Real property includes:
I. Mineral Rights
II. Light fixtures
III. Easem*nt
IV. Vegetation
(A) II
(B) I, II
(C) I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (D)
Real property consists of all land, structures, firmly attached and integrated equipment (such as
light fixtures or a well pump), anything growing on the land, and all “interests” in the property
which may be the right to future ownership (remainder), right to occupy for a period of time
(tenancy or life estate) the right to drill for oil, the right to get the property back (a reversion) if it
is no longer used for its current purpose (such as use for a hospital, school or city hall), use of
airspace (condominium) or an easem*nt across another’s property. Real property should be
thought of as a group of rights like a bundle of sticks which can be divided. It is distinguished
from the other type of property, “personal property”, which is made up of movable items.
http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/real+property
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_property#USA
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_property

(7) Oakland had a 2010 overall population of 445,000, and a Hispanic immigrant
population of 43,500 of which 3,050 were immigrants over the previous decade. In 2000,
Oakland’s population was 405,000. Which of the following (is)are true?
I. The current population increase is almost 9%
II. The Hispanic population represented almost 10% of the overall population in 2000
III. The Hispanic immigrant population increase represented 7.5% of the Hispanic immigrant
population and 7.6% of the overall population increase
IV. The Oakland population and Hispanic immigrant increases are approximately 0.1 and
0.08 percent, respectively
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) I, II

The correct answer is “B”
Percent increases are calculated based on the change between the original and the new
number, divided by the original number. Here, the original Hispanic immigrant population is
calculated by subtracting the increase from the current 2010 immigrant population (i.e. 43,500–
3,050 = 40,450 for the 2000 Hispanic immigrant population). The percent increase is then
calculated by dividing the increase by the original population (i.e. 3,050/40,450 = 0.0754 =
7.54% increase). Similarly, the calculation of the Hispanic immigrant percentage of the overall
population increase (i.e. 445,000-405,000 = 40,000) is done by taking the Hispanic immigrant
increase (3,050) and dividing by the overall increase (i.e. 3,050/40,000 = 7.63%). Answer II is
incorrect in that it addresses the total Hispanic population (for which we have no data) and not
just the smaller Hispanic immigrant population increase.
http://pages.uoregon.edu/rgp/PPPM613/class8a.htm

(8) Your fast growing county has just completed a major revision to your general plan,
including a new capital improvements program. The new CIP would likely address:
I. Land purchases, jails, tennis courts
II. Same timeframes as the budget
III. Pothole repairs, library books, fire hoses
IV. Concurrency
(A) II, III
(B) I, II, III
(C) I, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (C)
A capital improvements program (CIP) is typically a five-to-six year road map for planning and
funding public facilities and infrastructure. It typically incorporates both the construction of new
facilities and the rehabilitation or replacement of existing capital facilities. Best practices include
an economic analysis of the fiscal impact of new investments, including the life cycle costs of
maintaining and operating facilities or infrastructure. There is an essential linkage between
growth and the timing, phasing, or “concurrency” of capital investments. A local government
budget typically addresses one or two years; and addresses operational funding for issues such
as pothole repairs, new fire hoses, and new library book purchases, which are not considered
“capital” facility expenses.
SOURCES: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #25: Capital Improvements Programming (2010); APA’s
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 637-638
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capital_Improvement_Plan

(9) A 5th amendment taking may occur when:
I. Government seizes private property for a new highway
II. Private development seizes private property for a private purpose
III. When a regulation goes so far as to deny all economic use of a property
IV. The taking is permanent, but not temporary
(A) I, II, IV
(B) I, III
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “B”
The Fifth Amendment provides that private property shall not be taken without just
compensation. While the Fifth Amendment by itself only applies to actions by the federal
government, the Fourteenth Amendment extends the Takings Clause to actions by state and
local government as well. When the government wishes to acquire property, for example, to
build a new courthouse, it first attempts to buy the property on the open market. However, if the
owner refuses to sell, the government can go to court and exercise the power of eminent
domain, by having the court condemn the property in favor of the government. The Takings
Clause imposes two requirements on government in order to exercise this power. First, the
property to be acquired must be “for public use,” and second, the government must pay “just
compensation” to the owner of the property that is taken, even in some cases where the taking
may be temporary in duration.
The difficult cases are generally those where government regulations, enacted to secure some
sort of public benefit, fall disproportionately on some property owners and cause significant
dimunition of property value. The Court has had a difficult time articulating a test to determine
when a regulation becomes a taking. It has said there is “no set formula” and that courts “must
look to the particular circ*mstances of the case.” The Court has identified some relevant factors
to consider: the economic impact of the regulation, the degree to which the regulation interferes
with investor-backed expectations, and the character of the government action. Until 1922, the
Supreme Court did not consider such diminution of the value of a particular person’s property
incidental to a general regulation as raising an issue under the Takings Clause. In that year,
however, in a celebrated opinion by Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes, the Court held that if a
regulation went “too far,” it could constitute a taking that would require just compensation by the
government. Since that time the question has remained, how far is too far.
http://law2.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/conlaw/takings.htm
http://www.progressivereform.org/persptakings.cfm

(10) The Elders of Concord desire to develop a new district plan centered around the
concept of sustainability. After extensive research, you decide to recommend using
APA’s definition that:
(A) Sustainability is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising
the ability of future generations to meet their own needs
(B) Sustainability means improving the quality of people’s lives while living within the
capacities of supporting natural and human systems
(C) Sustainable development is a dynamic process which enables people to realize their
potential and improve their quality of life in ways which simultaneously protect and
enhance the earth’s life support systems
(D) The three E’s of Sustainability are economy, ecology, and equity

The answer is “B”
APA’s definition comes from its new Sustainability Policy Framework that replaces the previous
2000 Policy Guide on Sustainability, and which recognizes that sustainability touches many
different areas of policy and planning and therefore APA laid out a broad framework to guide a
wide array of APA advocacy, programming, and policy development. All listed answer options
are definitions of sustainability:
(A) = Bruntland Report for the World Commission on Environment and Development (1992)
(C) = Forum for the Future
(D) = Well known reiteration of the attributes that comprise sustainability.
https://planning-org-uploaded-media.s3.amazonaws.com/document/Sustainability-PolicyFramework.pdf

(11) A landlocked property owner can obtain an easem*nt in which of the following
ways?
(A) Expressed grant.
(B) Necessity.
(C) Prescription.
(D) Inverse condemnation

The correct answer is B)
The common law doctrine of easem*nt by necessity has long been used to allow a landlocked
landowner to access a public highway over another’s private land when no other relief is
available.

(12) Tonasket is concerned about the potential of expansion of nearby Big Box retailers
and their potential to adversely affect their independent downtown merchants.
Determined to pass new regulations that will limit Big Box impacts to their small rural
community, among the regulation(s) that their planner will consider is (are):
I. Banning stores with a standardized façade & standardized décor and color schemes
II. Banning stores over 100,000 sq. ft. in size within ¼ mile of town limits
III. Requiring stores over 40,000 sq. ft. to be approved through a special permit process
IV. Banning stores over 50,000 sq. ft. with more than 5% space devoted to groceries
(A) II, III
(B) III
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “C”
Banning stores outside the town’s jurisdiction exceeds their authority. A formula business is
typically defined as one with more than a specified number of outlets in the United States that
share common (standardized) features such as merchandise, trademark, architecture,
employee uniforms, or decor. Growing concern for the hom*ogenization of retail caused by the
proliferation of national chains (including big-box retailers) and the loss of local character makes
regulations prohibiting or addressing this issue more politically viable. Some jurisdictions require
big-box approval to occur through a special permit or conditional use process. Other
jurisdictions regulate the use of limits on the size of the grocery component of a store to ensure
two things: 1) that size limitations did not rule out department stores that are not big-boxes; and
2) that stores like Wal-Mart supercenters and SuperTargets do not destroy the existing grocery
store businesses in a region.
PAS 537: Meeting the Big-Box Challenge: Planning, Design, and Regulatory Strategies
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026865/

(13) The Visioning process allows for: early citizen involvement, impartial leadership, all
inclusive citizen participation, and:
I. Heavy media involvement
II. A long-range planning mentality
III. The saving of time and money
IV Ideal communities
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) III and IV

The correct answer is C)
Visioning is “planning at its boldest”, a participatory, collaborative, and consensus-driven
planning process that seeks to describe an agreed-upon long-range desired future for a
community on the issues that matter most to the community. Therefore, the most successful
visioning efforts involve all segments of the community. This often involves the use of major
multi-media strategies to both encourage public participation from all interest groups, and to
periodically publicize the success of ongoing efforts and maintain forward momentum and retain
continued interest and involvement in the process.
SOURCES: Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices; pp. 216-217; APA’s PAS
QuickNotes #15: Capital Improvements Programming (2008)

(14) Key issues of concern in waterfront planning include:
I. Gentrification
II. Industrial development
III. Sprawl
IV. Heavy metals
A) I, II, IV
B) I, III
C) II, IV
D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is A)
The loss of working waterfronts due to residential gentrification (and the continued retention of
major industrial areas that need to be on the water, such as boat repair facilities) is a significant
planning issue for many coastal areas, as is sediment contamination by heavy metals from such
industrial and marine activities.
See: http://www.wateraccessus.com/toolkit.html
http://www.washington-apa.org/assets/docs/new_efforts_with_working_waterfronts_and_public_access.pdf

(15) A Neighborhood plan:
I. Often propose a program of implementation shorter in duration than is proposed in the
general plan
II. Is intended to provide a more general inclusion of goals, policies and guidelines than in
the general plan
III. Focuses on a specific geographic area of a local jurisdiction that typically includes
substantial residential development, associated commercial uses, and institutional
services such as recreation and education
IV. The sole sponsors of neighborhood plans are government and the citizens of the
neighborhoods affected.
(A) I, III
(B) II, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “A”
The neighborhood plan is intended to provide more detailed goals, policies, and guidelines than
those in the general plan. The sponsors of neighborhood plans include cities, community
development organizations, foundations and private developers.
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Neighborhood Plans” pp. 16-
17; 12.

(16) Old Town is attempting to attract a major national grocer to the downtown area to
meet the needs of the increasing resident millennial population by:
I. Providing assistance to overcome higher land prices and land assembly issues
II. Convincing supermarket chains the area has sufficient market demand
III. Reassessing noise and odor standards and associated solutions to accommodate
grocers’ needs
IV. Convincing supermarket chains to provide fewer than traditional parking spaces
(A) I, IV
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “D”
All the listed options can potentially help attract supermarket chains back to the downtown
areas. Given that today’s average grocery store is more than 50,000 square feet in size,
and that national supermarket chains have become comfortable with their business models,
it is very difficult to find enough contiguous land available in a downtown area without either
great expense or demolition of buildings (sometimes of historic significance), or both. Most
supermarket chains need to be convinced that older downtowns and neighborhood commercial
corridors have enough market demand to support a supermarket. Zoning laws sometimes make
it difficult to build or operate downtown grocery stores – particularly as part of a mixed-use
project in which zoning officials fear that noise from a 24-hour or late-night grocery store or
smells from its trash area might disturb residents. Downtown development patterns - zerosetback, parking in the rear or in a parking lot elsewhere in the district – are unfamiliar, and
therefore perceived as risky, to the national chains (and to lending institutions). They are also
likely to believe that they will need the same number of parking spaces as for a comparably
sized suburban store, not knowing how many district residents are likely to reach the store on
foot, by bicycle, or using public transit, rather than by car.
http://plannersweb.com/wp-content/uploads/2006/07/118.pdf
https://www.idadowntown.org/eweb/docs/2011%20Speaker%20Pres/IDAGrocerypresentation.pdf

(17) Which of the following is out of order according to the Standard State Zoning
Enabling Act’s basic rezoning process?
I) Plan Commission recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
II) Notice is given of the governing body public hearing
III) The governing body hearing occurs
IV) The governing body takes action
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) They’re all in order

The correct answer is “D”
The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act states the following as the basic rezoning process:
1. Submittal of the zoning application
2. Application review by staff
3. Notice is given of the planning commission public hearing
4. The staff report is created
5. The planning commission hearing
6. The planning commission recommendation
7. The recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
8. Notice given of the governing body public hearing
9. The governing body hearing occurs
10. The governing body decision
Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the
American Institute of Certified Planners”, “Development Regulations” by Teresa Wilkinson,
AICP, pages 135-136.

(18) Environmental Justice:
I. Relates to those impacted adversely by environmental pollution
II. Requires mitigating the impacts of adverse federal environmental impacts on Native
American and minority populations
III. Refers to identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and
adverse human health or environmental effects of federal programs, policies, and
activities on minority populations and low-income populations
IV. Has its origins in the 1992 dumping of toxic wastes near minority communities in Morgan
County, Georgia
(A) II
(B) III
(C) II, IV
(D) I, III, IV

The correct answer is “B”
A major development in environmental justice policy occurred in 1994, when President Clinton
signed Executive Order 12898, directing all federal agencies to address environmental justice in
federal agency actions and to develop strategies for doing so by requiring that “each Federal
agency shall make achieving environmental justice part of its mission by identifying and
addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental
effects of its programs, policies, and activities on minority populations and low-income
populations in the United States.” In essence, it is an add-on to the NEPA process, and does
not require mitigation in and of itself, nor does it apply to all populations impacted by
environmental pollution. It covers both minority and low-income communities. Robert Bullard
published Dumping in Dixie: Race, Class and Environmental Quality in 1990, addressing the
protests against the siting of a landfill accepting polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) in primarily
African-American Warren County, North Carolina, in 1982.
PAS 549-550 Fair and Healthy Land Use: Environmental Justice and Planning
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026874/

(19) Carrying Capacity is a concept associated with:
(A) Andres Duany
(B) Ebenezer Howard
(C) Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr.
(D) Ian McHarg

The correct answer is “D”
Ian L. McHarg was a landscape architect and a renowned writer on regional planning using
natural systems. He was the founder of the department of landscape architecture at the
University of Pennsylvania in the United States. His 1969 book Design with Nature pioneered
the concept of ecological planning. The book was essentially a step-by-step graphic overlay
style instruction manual about how to assess a region (big or small), in physical planning terms,
and to determine appropriate land uses that would endure and have long term sustainability (i.e.
“intrinsic suitability”). This approach laid the basis for both GIS layers and the notion of carrying
capacity, which is basically the maximum population size that an environment or location can
sustain indefinitely, without adverse environmental changes. The term “carrying capacity” was
likely coined by Aldo Leopold (1933:50-51) in his work “Game management”, and is one of the
most common concepts in wildlife management.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3863853/
http://www.plannersnorth.com.au/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/Design_With_Nature.pdf
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ian_McHarg

(20) An Arterial street is best described as a:
A) Highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access and generally with grade
separations at intersections.
B) Street that provides through traffic movement on a continuous route joining major traffic
generators, where access to abutting properties may be controlled.
C) Major roadway with no access to adjacent properties.
D) Roadway that experiences up to 30% of all VMT in urban areas, and up to 20% of all
VMT in rural areas.

The correct answer is B)
Principal arterials serve longer trips, carry the highest traffic volumes, and carry a large
percentage of the VMT (vehicle miles traveled; 30%-55% of all roadway mileage) on minimum
roadway mileage (4%-12% of all roads) and provide minimal land access. Minor Arterials
interconnect the principal arterials, provide less mobility and slightly more land access, and
distribute travel to smaller geographic areas than principal arterials. Urban Collectors provide
both land access and traffic circulation with residential, commercial, and industrial areas by
collecting and distributing traffic to these areas. Local Streets provide direct access to adjacent
land and access to the higher classified streets (5-20% of all VMT; 65% - 75% of all roadway
mileage). Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP
Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”, page 149.

(21) In the following order, indicate the definitions for water table, aquifer, watershed and
recharge area:
I. The total area above a given point on a watercourse that contributes water to its flow;
the entire region drained by a waterway or watercourse that drains into a lake or
reservoir.
II. The upper limit of the portion of the soil that is completely saturated with water.
III. A geologic formation, group of formations, or part of a formation capable of yielding,
storing, or transmitting a usable amount of groundwater to wells or springs for domestic
or animal use.
IV. The natural process of infiltration and percolation of rainwater from land areas or
streams through permeable soils into water-holding rocks that provide underground
storage.
(A) II, III, I, IV
(B) IV, III, II, I
(C) II, I, III, IV
(D) IV, II, I, III

The correct answer is “A”
PAS 521/522 A Planners Dictionary
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026853/

(22) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co., 272 U.S. 365 (1926) dealt with which of the
following issues?
A) Adult Uses
B) Exactions
C) With the claim of a perceived taking
D) Sign Ordinance

The correct answer is C)
Ambler Realty sued the village, arguing that the zoning ordinance had substantially reduced the
value of the land by limiting its use, amounting to a deprivation of Ambler’s liberty and property
without due process (i.e., an unconstitutional “taking”).

(23) The roles of a State Historic Preservation Officer include:
I. Administering the State program of Federal assistance for historic preservation within
the State
II. Assisting Federal and State agencies and local governments in carrying out their historic
preservation responsibilities
III. Listing eligible properties on the National Register and otherwise administer applications
for listing historic properties on the National register
IV. Conducting a statewide survey of historic properties
(A) II, III
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “C”
Listing eligible properties on the National Register is the role of National Park Service, and
includes all National Historic Landmarks as well as all historic areas administered by the
National Park Service.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/State_historic_preservation_office
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Historic_Preservation_Act_of_1966
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Register_of_Historic_Places

(24) Which of the following planning movements was characterized by local management
and self-government without a need for intervention from the central state, and a
philosophy that planning should be designed for socioeconomic stratums just above the
poor?
A) Sanitary Movement
B) City Beautiful Movement
C) Garden City Movement
D) Housing Reform

The correct answer is C).
The garden city movement is an approach to urban planning that was founded in 1898 by Sir
Ebenezer Howard in the United Kingdom in his book, To-morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real
Reform, which offered a vision of towns free of slums and enjoying the benefits of both town
(such as opportunity, amusem*nt and high wages) and country (such as beauty, fresh air and
low rents). Garden cities were to be planned, self-contained communities surrounded by
greenbelts, and containing carefully balanced areas of residences, industry, and agriculture
which avoided the downfalls of industrial cities of the time such as urban poverty, overcrowding,
low wages, dirty alleys with no drainage, poorly ventilated houses, toxic substances, dust,
carbon gases, infectious disease and lack of interaction with nature.
See the following links for more information:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ebenezer_Howard
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Garden_city_movement

(25) The three C’s of a good staff report are:
(A) Consistency, Compatibility, Comprehensive
(B) Compliance, Consistency, Compatibility
(C) Compliance, Consistency, Comprehensive
(D) Comprehensive, Consistency, Compatibility

The correct answer is (B)
Staff Report findings are typically related to the concepts of compliance, consistency, and
compatibility, which are often the factors considered should the case be litigated:
* Compliance. The report should identify which codes the application is subject to and,
generally, how it complies. It should specify sections of the code with which the project
does not comply and note whether there are any waivers, alternatives, or conditions to
be considered. The report should relay how the application complies with environmental,
utility, traffic, and other regulations in addition to zoning.
* Consistency. The staff report should describe not only the land-use map classification
but whether the proposed project is consistent with the goals and policies of the adopted
plan. Consistency in applying codes is also important to assure equal protection. The
report should identify prior decisions, if any, and indicate why this recommendation is
similar (or why it is not).
* Compatibility. This is probably the most subjective and debated of the parameters. The
staff report should evaluate the project’s compatibility with adjacent properties. Is the use
compatible with those around it? Is the height and scale of the building compatible with
those adjacent? Are the site improvements (e.g., parking) and operational features (e.g.,
hours of operation) in character with the surrounding uses?
SOURCE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #30: Getting the Most out of Staff Reports (2011)

(26) Which of the following is a Policy:
(A) Train the Chapter’s planners to pass the AICP Exam
(B) Develop a comprehensive Florida Chapter AICP Exam Prep training manual
(C) Increase the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate above the national average by 2015.
(D) Annually monitor the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate by Section.

The correct answer is “B”
Goals provide a long term result, or the long-term end toward which programs or activities are
ultimately directed. Objectives are more specific, measurable statements of desired or
intermediate ends that are achievable and mark progress toward a goal. Policies are courses of
action that indicate how the goals and objectives of a plan should be realized. Measures are
metrics used to assess progress toward meeting an objective, which can consist of an output or
an outcome. Above, “A” is a goal. “B” is a policy, “C” is an Objective, and “D” is a measure.

(27) The County Administrator tells you, the Planning Director, that he is concerned
about the potential environmental justice issues associated with the new proposed
landfill site in a residential area. Among the planning issues you direct your staff to
investigate are:
I. Whether Hispanics will experience a disproportionate environmental impact
II. Public participation
III. Housing gentrification
IV. Health risk assessment
(A) I, II
(B) I, II, IV
(C) I only
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “B“
EPA defines environmental justice (EJ) as the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all
people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income with respect to the development,
implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies. Other
definitions include equitable distribution of environmental risks and benefits; fair and meaningful
participation in environmental decision-making; recognition of community ways of life, local
knowledge, and cultural difference; and the capability of communities and individuals to function
and flourish in society. Although its origins go back much earlier, in 1994, President Clinton
issued Executive Order 12898, “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority
Populations and Low-Income Populations.” Executive Order 12898 requires that achieving EJ
must be part of each federal agency’s mission and to identify and address the disproportionately
high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their actions on minority and lowincome populations.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Environmental_justice
https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-executive-order-12898-federal-actions-address-environmental-justice

(28) Which of the following is the most appropriate instrument for waiving the frontage
requirements for a lot located on an isolated hillside?
A) variance
B) special permit
C) cluster zoning
D) rezoning

The correct answer is A)
A variance would be appropriate in this case, provided the hillside represented a severe
topographic hardship, precluding the strict application of the ordinance.

(29) Early 20th century housing policies often had unintended consequences. One such
example involved the promotion of racial segregation and urban decay due to redlining:
(A) The 1901 Tenement Act
(B) The 1933 Emergency Banking Act
(C) The 1934 Housing Act
(D) The 1937 Housing Act

The correct answer is “C”
Created by the 1934 Housing Act, the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) revolutionized
home ownership by creating our current financial mortgaging system. In the process, it
produced a lending structure which helped to solidify the racial segregation that still exists
today. The Underwriting Handbook used by the FHA endorsed the practice of redlining, which
marked African-American neighborhoods as ineligible for FHA mortgages. Redlining is the
practice of refusing to back mortgages in neighborhoods based on racial and ethnic
composition. The FHA’s strict lending standards, contained in the FHA Underwriting Handbook,
determined which kinds of properties it would approve mortgages for. In addition to physical
quality standards, the FHA based its decisions on the location, and racial and ethnic
composition of the neighborhood where the property existed. For example, in 1934 the FHA
Underwriting Handbook incorporated “residential security maps” into their standards to
determine where to mortgages could or could not be issued. The implementation of this federal
policy aggravated the decay of minority inner city neighborhoods caused by the withholding of
mortgage capital, and made it even more difficult for neighborhoods to attract and retain families
able to purchase homes. The assumptions in redlining resulted in a large increase in residential
racial segregation and urban decay in the United States.
http://www.bostonfairhousing.org/timeline/1934-FHA.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Redlining#History

(30) What type of regulation includes impact fees, growth management controls, and land
recordation?
A) Subdivision Regulation
B) Zoning
C) Land Use
D) Comprehensive Planning

The correct answer is “A”
Subdivision regulations control and record the process of subdividing land. A result of
subdivision regulations is the preservation of land records by platting and mapping. Another
result is that developers design and construct developments properly. They include: 1) land
recordation, 2) local design and construction standards for improvements and lots, 3) dedication
requirements in the form of land or cash-in-lieu, 4) use of developer’s impact fees, 5) the
institution of growth management controls. Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council
Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”,
“Development Regulations” by Teresa Wilkinson, AICP, Gretna, LA, page 137.

(31) Your small town needs to undertake an extensive citizen involvement process to
help develop a vision for the community and lacks the needed in-house expertise to
know how to effectively accomplish this. In your role as the Planning Director, you
determine that the best option available is:
(A) Define required services and carry out a two-step RFQ-RFP process
(B) Seek advice from the regional planning council
(C) Assign your best senior planner to educate himself in citizen involvement techniques
(D) Ask your local citizen groups for advise

The best answer is (A)
Although the regional planning council may be able to provide “advice” on how to effectively
accomplish a visioning process, it is often best to augment staff expertise through the hiring of
expert consultants where detailed technical or subject matter knowledge on a specific planning
process is required. Consultants are typically skilled at facilitating the extensive public outreach
and involvement required in major planning projects. Outside experts can also bring credibility
and a sense of objectivity to planning processes.
SEE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #37: Hiring a Consultant: RFQs and RFPs (2012)

(32) In order, match the definition answers with the following terms: cost-revenue; costeffectiveness; cost-benefit; fiscal impact analysis.
I. Determines whether a particular project or scale of development within a community will
generate sufficient revenues to defray the necessary public service costs
II. Focuses on a single objective and a project’s effectiveness with respect to that objective
III. Focuses exclusively on the costs and revenues associated with a specific form of growth
IV. Compares both the tangible and intangible (externalities) costs and revenues of a
particular project or program compares what a community gains from the project benefits
to what the community must forego in order to achieve it
(A) I, IV, III, II
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) III, II, IV, I
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “C”
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Manual, p. 161.
http://books.google.com/books?id=zH6lslEBF0oC&pg=PA3&lpg=PA3&dq=%22cost+revenue+a
nalysis%22+%22fiscal+impact+analysis%22+difference&source=bl&ots=ETw4QrkEjZ&sig=035
qK3DjxAZbsCsypAT2XVTL6Hg&hl=en&sa=X&ei=gStdVNmUOcKhgwT0wIEI&ved=0CCQQ6AE
wAQ#v=onepage&q=%22cost%20revenue%20analysis%22%20%22fiscal%20impact%20analy
sis%22%20difference&f=false

(33) Clarence Stein is best known for his work on which topic?
A) The New York State thruway
B) The Catskill preserve
C) The Greenbelt Towns
D) The Rural Electrification Administration

The correct answer is “C”
Stein was a major proponent of the Garden City movement in the United States, and involved in
the 1930’s development of the “Greenbelt towns” under the rural Resettlement Administration,
including Greenbelt, Maryland, Greendale, Wisconsin and Greenhills, Ohio. Earlier in 1923,
Stein and Henry Wright collaborated on the plan for Sunnyside Gardens, a neighborhood of the
New York City borough of Queens that took the garden city ideas of Sir Ebenezer Howard as a
model. Also, in 1929, Stein and Wright collaborated with Kenneth Weinberger on the plan for
the Radburn community in Fair Lawn, New Jersey, roughly double the area of Sunnyside. The
vision for Radburn was of an integrated self-sustaining community, surrounded by greenbelts,
specialized automotive thoroughfares (main linking roads, serviced lanes for direct access to
buildings, and express highways), and a complete separation of auto and pedestrian traffic.
These thoroughfares were called “superblocks”.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clarence_Stein

(34) The Planning Director of your large, metropolitan city desires to establish some
regulations to address the burgeoning public street markets and vendors that are
increasingly appearing on vacant spaces throughout the city. The Planning Director
wants to ensure that the new regulations improve community image, protect shops and
restaurants, avoid sidewalk congestion, and reduce the liability of adjacent businesses.
Among the many relevant issues the senior planner in charge of drafting the regulations
may decide to address is/are:
I. Restrictions on vending and market locations
II. Capping the total city number of allowed vendors
III. Restrictions/prohibitions on certain foods for sale
IV. Fees and Taxes
(A) I
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (D)
Communities regulate markets and street merchants through zoning and business licensing or
through standards of behavior on public property in eight key areas:
1. Vending locations – e.g. sidewalk vending or street markets
2. Exemptions – e.g. obtaining waivers from neighboring businesses
3. Permit caps – e.g. vending permit caps
4. Vending area – e.g. brightline versus flexible locational standards
5. Space allocation – e.g. space allocation by governmental vs. designated authority
6. Restrictions on certain goods – e.g. food type restrictions (fruit/vegetable only)
7. Cart or display design – e.g. cart size, less often, cart appearance
8. Fees and taxes – e.g. license, permit costs (per sq. foot vs. flat fee)
SOURCE: APA’s Public Markets; “Zoning Practice” (February 2009)

(35) The City you work for is considering the installation of a pedestrian trail and
requiring dedication of property through the entitlement process to assemble the
property. Which takings case should you review?
(A) Dolan
(B) Nollan
(C) Lucas
(D) Mt. Laurel

The correct answer is “A”
Dolan, of a Plumbing & Electrical Supply store in the city of Tigard, Oregon, applied for a permit
to expand the store and pave the parking lot of her store. The city planning commission granted
conditional approval, dependent on Dolan dedicating land to a public greenway along an
adjacent creek, and developing a pedestrian and bicycle pathway in order to relieve traffic
congestion. The decision was appealed to the Oregon State Land Use Board of Appeals
(LUBA), alleging that the land dedication requirements were not related to the proposed
development, and thus constituted an uncompensated taking of her property. The Supreme
Court held that the requirement for a public greenway (as opposed to a private one, to which
Dolan would retain other rights of property owners, such as the right of exclusive access), was
excessive, and that the City failed to meet its burden of establishing that the proposed pathway
was necessary to offset the increased traffic which would be caused by the proposed expansion
(i.e. rough proportionality).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dolan_v._City_of_Tigard

(36) You are a Planner for Wainfleet, New York, and you are attending the Mayor’s Annual
Luncheon on the State of the City and you bump into a private developer that you went to
college with. She tells you about an exciting retail development and movie theater
complex that she wants to build in Wainfleet. She offers you the opportunity to invest in
the development. Which is the best option below for you to follow knowing that the
development will come before your department for review?
A) You should put the investment in your husband’s name and invest in the development.
B) You should disclose your investment with your boss, the director, and once they give
their approval you should invest.
C) Invest in the development and when it comes before your department for review,
exclude yourself from dealing with the project and have your staff make the
recommendations for or against the development.
D) Although it seems like an exciting opportunity you should decline the opportunity.

The correct answer is “D”
According to the APA Code of Ethics the best thing to do in this situation is to decline the
opportunity and say “no” to investing in this development. One of the main thoughts that the
APA is trying to make very clear to planners is to stay out of potentially unfavorable situations
that could be construed as being unethical. In answer A, you should remember that, as in this
example, your husband’s financial interests are also your own. In answer B, your Director or
boss should not give you permission to invest in this development. In answer C, your staff may
recommend the development or show some sort of favoritism because they know that you are
involved in its success or failure. Answer D, is the best on the four possible actions.

(37) Which economic development program would be most successful?
(A) Attracting big business with greater than 300 employees.
(B) Working with existing business owners to expand their businesses.
(C) Facilitating the location of state and/or federal government offices in your CBD.
(D) Working toward the development of a research and technology park.

The correct answer is “B”
The key objective of an economic development strategy is business development and job
growth, which comes from the creation of new firms, the expansion of existing firms, and the
attraction or retention of existing firms. Working to retain and expand your community’s existing
businesses would generally prove most successful in economic development. The job creation
efforts of an incubator can take more time to mature than those of a large existing employer,
and new firms may only be replacing existing businesses.
PAS 541 An Economic Development Toolbox: Strategies and Methods
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026868/

(38) A staff planner is responsible for preparing a report for a proposed General Plan
Amendment. If approved, the action would allow a multiple family use to be designated
near the Central Business District. There is moderate community protest over the
proposed change. The planner has been told by the City Administrator that the Council is
looking favorably toward approval of the request because the community needs
affordable housing. However, the Council is seeking compelling reasons to approve the
amendment to prevent bad press and political embarrassment. Understanding all this,
the planner decides to:
A) Recommend denial of the project to protect the Council from public outcry.
B) Include in the staff report a discussion about the need for affordable housing and the
requirements of state law to provide such housing and offer a recommendation for
approval.
C) Recommend approval based on the right of the property owner to develop his land as he
sees fit. .
D) Recommend a series of alternative choices and let the Council make the final decision.

The correct answer is “B”.
The general, multiple purposes of a good staff report:
1. To factually describe the issue
2. To objectively describe why the issue is before the board or commission
3. To anticipate and answer questions likely to be asked at the hearing
4. To provide a professional recommendation
5. To inform officials and stakeholders on the issues of compliance, consistency, and
compatibility with adopted plans and applicable regulations
6. To build a public record and a legally defensible foundation—should litigation arise.
SOURCE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #30: Getting the Most out of Staff Reports (2011)

(39) Which U.S. housing act or legislation has been most successful at encouraging
home ownership?
(A) Hope VI
(B) HOME
(C) Mortgage interest tax deduction
(D) LIHTC

The correct answer is “C“
The home mortgage interest deduction allows taxpayers who own their homes to reduce their
taxable income by the amount of interest paid on the loan which is secured by their principal
residence. Approximately half of all homeowners (~ 75 million) use this deduction, and the
standard justification for the deduction is that it gives an incentive for home ownership.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Home_mortgage_interest_deduction
http://www.investopedia.com/articles/pf/06/mortinttaxdeduct.asp
http://www.deseretnews.com/article/700200108/Eliminating-the-mother-of-all-tax-deductions.html?pg=all

(40) The original Oregon Model is framed by the following four questions of the steps to
undertake in the Visioning process, in the following order (from first to last):
I. Where Do We Want to Be?
II. Where Are We Going?
III. How Do We Get There?
IV. Where Are We Now?
(A) IV, II, III, I
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) IV, II, I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (C)
Oregon was one of the first places in the U.S. to undergo a proliferation of community-based
visioning, and the Oregon Model represents a comprehensive approach to visioning that has
since gained widespread acceptance around the country. The model is framed by four simple
questions:
1. Where are we now?
2. Where are we going?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
Some communities add a fifth step promoting action plan implementation (called the
“New” Oregon Model):
5. Are we getting there?
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 55

(41) President Clinton’s 1994 Executive Order 12898:
(A) Prohibited federal contracts from going to businesses that knowingly hire illegal workers
(B) Established a Commission To Study Capital Budgeting
(C) Directed federal agencies to identify and address the disproportionately high and
adverse human health or environmental effects of their actions on minority and lowincome populations
(D) Expanded the President’s Council on Sustainable Development

The correct answer is “C”
Clinton’s Executive Order 12898 addressing Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice
in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations was issued in 1994. The order also
directed each agency to develop a strategy for implementing environmental justice and
established an Interagency Working Group (IWG) on environmental justice chaired by the EPA
Administrator and comprised of the heads of 11 departments or agencies and several White
House offices. All the answers address Executive Orders issued by President Clinton
https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-executive-order-12898-federal-actions-addressenvironmental-justice

The best “transportation concept” answer is “C”
Skinny Streets, road narrowing and horizontal narrowing are all terms for a traffic calming
measure that require drivers to slow down for a moment to understand what is happening and
thread themselves through a reduced width. Wide traffic lanes encourage faster motor vehicle
speeds. The neighborhoods with narrow streets and on-street parking on both sides of the
street don’t really have more collisions than the wider streets where everyone has a four-car
driveway. That’s because of the greater attention required to navigate through the narrow street
with the unpredictable parking pattern.
http://www.useful-community-development.org/traffic-calming.html
https://safety.fhwa.dot.gov/ped_bike/univcourse/pdf/swless11.pdf

(43) The Johnson Air Force base in Levy County is being increasingly impacted by new
surrounding development that is quickly conflicting with the military base’s primary
training mission, and creating potential safety issues. The County, in conjunction with
the Air Force Base Commander, decides to immediately begin planning to address base
compatibility issues, and undertakes those efforts by utilizing the following tools in the
following order (from first to last):
I. AICUZ/JLUS
II. Amortization
III. Moratorium
IV. Military Overlay adoption
(A) I, IV, III, II
(B) I, III, IV, II
(C) III, I, IV, II
(D) III, II, I, IV

The correct answer is (C)
This is a question about immediateness of action and order of action. In the military land-use
compatibility context, a moratorium might likely be used to serve a valid public purpose (i.e.
planning in progress) because it restricts development while local government prepares a
permanent plan to address public safety and military readiness—both vital public interests. The
planning could happen through either the airfield oriented Air Installation Compatible Use Zone
(AICUZ) process, or a Joint Land Use Study (JLUS) involving the military base, local
government, and the public. For example, a comprehensive plan’s land-use element might
address the issue of compatible use by calling for implementation of the AICUZ study or JLUS,
which might be codified through the adoption of a Military overlay addressing the height, noise,
and accident potential zones contained in the base’s AICUZ study, and imposing specific landuse regulations in addition to a property’s underlying zoning designation. Finally, a local
government might use amortization to provide a non-conforming use property owner a
reasonable time to phase out nonconforming uses and structures that interfere with military
operations, but once that time has expired, the nonconformity would have to be terminated.
SOURCE: APA’s Compatibility: Land-Use Compatibility Near Military Bases: A Planner’s
Perspective; “Zoning Practice” (May 2011)

(44) To help implement a program to counter man-made climate change impacts, the
major asks you, the planning director, to develop a local public/private partnership
parking cash out program. Among the tools you investigate are:
I. Encouraging business interests to have their employees utilize mass transit and car
pooling
II. Requiring employers who provide subsidized parking for their employees to offer a
cash allowance, partly subsidized by the city, in lieu of a parking space
III. Encouraging business interests to subsidize their employees to utilize nearby, vacant
public parking in lieu of an onsite parking space
IV. Providing free downtown mass transit
(A) I, III
(B) II
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “B”
Giving commuters the choice between a parking subsidy or its cash equivalent shows even free
parking has an opportunity cost—the forgone cash. The option to cash out thus raises the
effective price of commuter parking without charging for it. The cash option converts employerpaid parking from a matching grant for driving to work into a cash grant for commuting.
Commuters can continue to park free at work, but the cash option also rewards commuters who
carpool, walk, bike, or ride public transit to work.
California enacted a parking cash-out requirement in 1992. The law requires many
employers to offer a parking cash-out program: “Parking cash-out program” means an
employer-funded program, under which an employer offers to provide a cash allowance to
an employee equivalent to the parking subsidy that the employer would otherwise pay to
provide the employee with a parking space. . . . “Parking subsidy” means the
difference between the out-of-pocket amount paid by an employer on a regular basis in
order to secure the availability of an employee parking space not owned by the employer and
the price, if any, charged to an employee for the use of that space.
http://shoup.bol.ucla.edu/Parking%20Cash%20Out%20Report.pdf
https://www.arb.ca.gov/planning/tsaq/cashout/cashout.htm

(45) Adverse possession:
(A) Requires access to a public way over adjacent land if crossing that land is absolutely
necessary to reach a landlocked parcel and there has been some original intent to
provide the lot with access, and the grant was never completed or recorded but is
thought to exist
(B) Is a situation when a person who does not have legal title to land occupies the land
without the permission of the legal owner
(C) Is an implied easem*nt granted after the dominant estate has used the property in a
hostile, continuous and open manner for a statutorily prescribed number of years.
(D) Is a power invested in a qualified private land conservation organization (often called a
“land trust”) or government (municipal, county, state or federal) to constrain, as to a
specified land area, the exercise of rights otherwise held by a landowner so as to
achieve certain conservation purposes

The correct answer is “B”
Adverse possession is a situation when a person who does not have legal title to land (or real
property) occupies the land without the permission of the legal owner. The permission of the
owner may be reflected in the entering into a lease or granting a licence, typically associated
with the payment of some rent. The laws of many countries allow the adverse possessor (in law
also called the disseisor) to acquire title to the land after a prescribed statutory period, which
varies between jurisdictions, and depend on the type of land and other circ*mstances. The laws
of most jurisdictions do not permit claims of adverse possession against public land. Squatting
(aka Squatter’s Rights) is a form of adverse possession. The adverse possessor is usually
required to prove non-permissive use which is actual, open and notorious, exclusive, adverse,
and continuous for the statutory period. If a claim to title by adverse possession is successful,
title is acquired without compensation.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adverse_possession

(46) According to Aristotle, the proper design of Greek cities should:
A) Emphasize aesthetics, to promote beauty
B) Be functionally situated to shade from summer heat and provide access to winter sun
C) Preserve the haphazard arrangement of earlier times to make it more difficult for
invaders to fight their way in
D) Incorporate a grid pattern to encourage commerce and ease of movement

The correct answer is C)
Aristotle was a critic of Hippodamus’ idea of straight streets and a gridded layout. He argued
that, while a town planned in a grid is certainly more visually appealing than a haphazardly
planned urban area, the latter is better for deterring invaders. If a city is infiltrated, the
trespassers would easily be able to navigate through the streets if they are planned out in an
orderly way. However, poorly planned streets are much easier to get lost in, and intruders not
familiar with the city would be at a loss in such a place. Basically, orderly planning is good for
beauty, haphazard planning (or lack thereof) is better for security.
See: http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/CityPlan.htm
http://www.academia.edu/4378826/Centenary_Paper_Plan_and_constitution_Aristotle_s
_Hippodamus_towards_an_ostensive_definition_of_spatial_planning_2009
From: https://desktopexplorer.wordpress.com/tag/hippodamus-of-miletus/

(47) A planning director appointed by a mayor (as opposed to one hired by a City
Manager):
I. The planner appointed by the mayor will be the best planner available
II. The planner appointed by the mayor serves at the pleasure of the mayor
III. The planner appointed by the mayor will be someone who supported the mayor
politically
IV. The planner appointed by the mayor may be fired by the City Manager
(A) I, II, IV
(B) II
(C) I, IV
(D) II, III

The best answer is “B”
Planning Directors hired by a Council, Commission or Mayor typically report directly to the
Council, Commission or Mayor hiring them, and serve “at will”.

(48) Prescriptive Easem*nt:
(A) Requires access to a public way over adjacent land if crossing that land is absolutely
necessary to reach a landlocked parcel and there has been some original intent to
provide the lot with access, and the grant was never completed or recorded but is
thought to exist
(B) Is a situation when a person who does not have legal title to land occupies the land
without the permission of the legal owner
(C) Is an implied easem*nt granted after the dominant estate has used the property in a
hostile, continuous and open manner for a statutorily prescribed number of years.
(D) Is a power invested in a qualified private land conservation organization (often called a
“land trust”) or government (municipal, county, state or federal) to constrain, as to a
specified land area, the exercise of rights otherwise held by a landowner so as to
achieve certain conservation purposes

The correct answer is “C”
Easem*nts by prescription, also called prescriptive easem*nts, are implied easem*nts granted
after the dominant estate has used the property in a hostile, continuous and open manner for a
statutorily prescribed number of years (e.g. school children cutting across my backyard for 20
years). Prescriptive easem*nts differ from adverse possession by not requiring exclusivity. Laws
and regulations vary among local and national governments, but some traits are common to
most prescription laws:
* open and notorious (i.e. obvious to anyone)
* actual, continuous (i.e., uninterrupted for the entire required time period); this does not
necessarily require use daily, weekly, etc.
* adverse to the rights of the true property owner
* hostile (i.e. in opposition to the claim of another; this can be accidental, not “hostile” in
the common sense)
* continuous for a period of time defined by statute or appellate case law
Answer “A” is easem*nt by necessity; “B” is adverse possession; “D” is a conservation
easem*nt.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Easem*nt#Express_easem*nt
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conservation_easem*nt

(49) For many years, a dispute has ensued between leaders of a federally recognized
American Indian Tribe and the Governor’s office and state legislature regarding activities
on Tribal property. The Governor and members of the legislature seek to regulate land
uses occurring on the reservation, particularly those relating to minimum lot sizes. The
Tribe maintains that the state has no jurisdiction. In an action to enforce zoning
regulations on Tribal property, the state will:
(A) Likely win if it can prove a link between health, safety, and welfare and zoning
enactments
(B) Likely win regardless of the linkage under a state supremacy argument
(C) Likely lose under a federal supremacy argument
(D) Likely lose unless the state can prove all Tribes are similarly treated under the state’s
mandated provisions

The correct answer is C)
While state governments have the right and responsibility to regulate and/or protect the health,
safety, and welfare of all persons within its borders, there is one important exception: Indian
affairs. The regulation and management of Tribal property is delegated to Congress by the
United States Constitution, article I, section 8. No state (or local) government can exert
regulatory jurisdiction without consent by the Tribe. Interesting land use problems arise where
the state or abutting local government seeks to protect natural resource systems that lie within
Tribal property, or vice-versa. As the Tribe has no jurisdiction over lands outside their
Reservation properties, seemingly endless land use conflicts can arise, particularly with respect
to wetlands, groundwater, and surface water management

(50) The Telecommunications Act of 1996:
I. Preempts local regulation of cell tower radio frequency emission effects
II. Requires zoning decisions be in writing and supported by substantial evidence
III. Preempts the state regulation of cell towers
IV. Requires local decisions be based on expert testimony
(A) I, II
(B) III, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (A)
The Telecommunications Act does not preempt ALL state or local regulation of cell towers, but
only preempts the regulation of the “environmental effects of radio frequency emissions”. The
Act requires that decisions be based on “substantial evidence” supporting a municipality’s cell
tower zoning decisions, and does not “require” expert testimony.
SOURCE: APA’s Telecommunications: Federal Cell Tower Zoning - Key Points and Practical
Suggestions; “Zoning Practice” (August 2011)

(51) A Complete Street is best described as:
A) A street that promotes New Urbanism principles and has on-street parking
B) A street that incorporates green infrastructure, TOD and walkability
C) A street that ensures safe, healthy, convenient and comfortable travel and access for all
users
D) A street that uses green infrastructure, TOD, walkability, Woonerfs and Wayfinding.

The correct answer is “C”
Complete Streets is a transportation policy and design approach that requires streets to be
planned, designed, operated, and maintained to enable safe, convenient and comfortable travel
and access for users of all ages and abilities regardless of their mode of transportation.
APA Planning Advisory Service (PAS) Report 559: Complete Streets: Best Policy and
Implementation Practices (March 2010).
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Complete_streets
https://www.planning.org/media/document/9006906/
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026883/

(52) Economic base analysis evaluates local government development conditions to
determine future development options. Which of the following elements are included?
I. An assessment of local economic growth potential in relation to evolving regional,
national, and international economic and demo-graphic trends.
II. An inventory of existing real estate market conditions.
III. A projection of future trends in job growth, personal income, and other relevant
economic variable.
IV. A study of unemployment and ethnicity.
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I, II, and III
(D) I, III and IV

The correct answer is “C”
Economic base analysis is the study of cities and regions which focuses on basic service
(export) ratios, the ratio of employment in basic activities to employment in non-basic activities
which utilizes economic multipliers. Basic industries are defined as local or regional industries
with an industry employment / total employment ratio higher than the national ratio for the
industry (note: this can include industries such as “Finance, insurance, and real estate”). Non
basic industries have a lower industry employment total employment ratio than the nation.
Varies with the size of community: the larger the community, the larger the multiplier (more
places to spend money). Service economies can export knowledge/service. Once basic
employment is identified, the outlook for future basic employment is investigated sector by
sector and future projections are made sector by sector. In turn, this permits the projection of
future total employment in the region. For example: If there is one export job which creates
three total jobs in the community, then a multiplier of three says that for every export job
created, a total of three jobs are created. This would be an economic base multiplier of 1:3.
Helps to show areas of specialization within a community.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economic_base_analysis
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Guide, Quantitative Methods, p. 161.
APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); pp. 507-508.

(53) What is the smallest census geographic unit with 100% tabulation of data?
(A) Consolidated MSA
(B) Census Tract
(C) Census Block
(D) Place

The correct answer is “C”
A census block is the smallest geographic unit used by the United States Census Bureau for
tabulation of 100-percent data (data collected from all houses, rather than a sample of houses).
Census blocks are grouped into block groups, which are grouped into census tracts. There are
on average about 39 blocks per block group. Blocks are typically bounded by streets, roads or
creeks. In cities, a census block may correspond to a city block, but in rural areas where there
are fewer roads, blocks may be limited by other features. The population of a census block
varies greatly from zero to hundreds, but has an average size of about 100 people.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Census_block

(54) This 1915 U.S. Supreme Court case first upheld the use of Police Power for
regulating the location of land uses:
(A) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co.
(B) Hadacheck v. Sebastian
(C) Eubank v. City of Richmond
(D) Welch v. Swasey

The correct answer is “B”
In HADACHECK v. SEBASTIAN (1915), the court first approved regulating the location of land
uses. City of Los Angeles passed an ordinance barring brick manufacturing within the
residential section of city. The Petitioner, Hadacheck, owned land that was annexed into the city
and which contained valuable clay deposits. After erecting expensive machinery for the
manufacture of bricks of fine quality which were being used for building purposes in and about
the City, he was convicted of a misdemeanor violation of the ordinance prohibiting the
establishment or operation of a brick kiln within the City Limits. The court ruled that under the
police power, a state may validly declare a particular business to be a nuisance under the facts
and circ*mstances (i.e. brickmaking within a designated area), as it relates to public health.
Supreme Court Justice McKenna, writing for a unanimous court, upheld that the ordinance was
a legitimate use of the police power. He analogized this case to an earlier one, Reinman v. Little
Rock, 237 U.S. 171 (1915), which dealt with a similar ordinance banning livery stables.
Reinman was distinguishable on the grounds that a livery stable could be moved and operated
anywhere, while bricks can only be manufactured where suitable clay is found. Hadacheck
contended that the removal of clay from his land was not physically impossible, but was
prohibitively expensive. The Court held that even though relocating the brick factory would be
costly, the ordinance did not amount to a complete denial of the use of Hadacheck’s property,
because the ordinance did not completely deny Hadacheck the use of the clay on his land.
In WELCH v. SWASEY (1909), the court first approved building height controls. In EUBANK v.
CITY OF RICHMOND (1912), the court first approved setback regulations, although it
overturned the particular setback scheme in this case. In VILLAGE OF EUCLID v. AMBLER
REALTY CO. (1926), the Court stated that modern zoning is a proper use of the police power.
In doing so, the court brought together all the other cases mentioned in this question. Alfred
Bettman filed a brief with the court that largely changed its mind over Euclid.
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Manual, p. 62.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadacheck_v._Sebastian
https://www.txplanning.org/media/files/page/Planning_Case_Law.pdf

(55) A process where citizens address themselves to proposals through workshop
formats that involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a
conversation in full view of a larger group of listeners?
(A) Fishbowl
(B) Drop in Centers
(C) Design in
(D) Delphi Technique

The correct answer is “A“
Fishbowls involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a conversation
in full view of a larger group of listeners. Fishbowl processes provide a creative way to include
the “public” in a small group discussion. They can be used in a wide variety of settings, including
workshops, conferences, organizational meetings and public assemblies. Fishbowls are useful
for ventilating “hot topics” or sharing ideas or information from a variety of perspectives. When
the people in the middle are public officials or other decision-makers, this technique can help
bring transparency to the decision-making process and increase trust and understanding about
complex issues. In an open fishbowl, any member of the audience can, at any time, occupy the
empty chair and join the fishbowl. When this happens, an existing member of the fishbowl must
voluntarily leave the fishbowl and free a chair. The discussion continues with participants
frequently entering and leaving the fishbowl.
http://www.kstoolkit.org/Fish+Bowl
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fishbowl_(conversation)
2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 122

(56) The City Beautiful movement spurred the development of:
(A) Multi-modal infrastructure
(B) Civic structures
(C) Skyscrapers/Skylines
(D) Sprawling city cores

The correct answer is “B”
The City Beautiful Movement was a reform philosophy of North American architecture and
urban planning that flourished during the 1890s and 1900s with the intent of introducing
beautification and monumental grandeur in cities. The movement first gained ground in 1893
with the World’s Columbian Exposition in Chicago. Daniel H. Burnham headed the construction
of the fair’s temporary city, known to those who attended as the “White City,” a semi-utopia in
which visitors were meant to be shielded from poverty and crime. Burnham’s plans for the site
incorporated the designs of architects trained at the École des Beaux-Arts in Paris, who paired
the balance and harmony of Neoclassical and Baroque architecture with the aesthetic of
Chicago’s buildings and cityscape. City Beautiful was characterized by the belief that if you
improved form, function would follow. In other words, an attractive city would perform better than
an unattractive one. Beauty came from what Burnham called “municipal art” – magnificent
parks, elaborately designed civic buildings, wide boulevards, and public gathering places
adorned with fountains and monuments.
An early use of the City Beautiful ideal with the intent of creating social order through
beautification was the McMillan Plan, (1902) named for Michigan Senator James McMillan. The
plan emerged from the Senate Park Commission’s redesigning of the monumental core of
Washington, D.C. to commemorate the city’s centennial and to fulfill unrealized aspects of the
city plan of Pierre Charles L’Enfant a century earlier. The Washington planners, who included
Burnham, Saint-Gaudens, Charles McKim of McKim, Mead, and White, and Frederick Law
Olmsted, Jr., visited many of the great cities of Europe. They hoped to make Washington
monumental and green like the European capitals of the era; they believed that state-organized
beautification could lend legitimacy to government during a time of social disturbance in the
United States. The essence of the plan surrounded the United States Capitol with monumental
government buildings to replace “notorious slum communities”. At the heart of the design was
the creation of the National Mall and eventually included Burnham’s Union Station.
https://www.britannica.com/topic/City-Beautiful-movement
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/City_Beautiful_movement
http://www.encyclopedia.chicagohistory.org/pages/61.html
http://science.howstuffworks.com/environmental/green-science/urban-planning1.htm

(57) Metropolitan Planning Organizations (MPO), are typically responsible for which of
the following?
I. Coordinating regional transportation planning
II. Certifying that a project to be federally funded will be consistent with regional plans or
regional development goals.
III. Regulating land use and the construction of freeways.
IV Planning for air quality
A) I, IV
B) II, III
C) I, II, IV
D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “C”.
Federal legislation passed in the early 1970s required the formation of a Metropolitan Planning
Organization (MPO) for any urbanized area (UA) with a population greater than 50,000. MPOs
were created in order to ensure that existing and future expenditures for transportation projects
and programs were based on a continuing, cooperative and comprehensive (3-C) planning
process. Federal funding for transportation projects and programs is channeled through the
MPO. MPOs in air quality nonattainment and maintenance areas are required to ensure that
emissions from transportation investments will not cause new violations or affect an area’s
schedule to attain the air quality standards. The Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1990 identifies the
actions states and MPOs must take to reduce emissions from on-road mobile sources in
nonattainment and maintenance areas.
http://www.planning.dot.gov/documents/briefingbook/bbook.htm#4BB
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metropolitan_planning_organization
http://www.h-gac.com/taq/airquality/faq/

(58) Which of the following federal programs was enacted to resuscitate impoverished
neighborhoods by providing new housing and decent jobs for the unemployed?
A) Block Grant Program.
B) Section 8 Housing Program.
C) Empowerment Zones: Enterprise Communities Program.
D) Social Security Program.

The correct answer is C)
Introduced in 1993, the Empowerment Zone (EZ), Enterprise Community (EC), and Renewal
Community (RC) Initiatives sought to reduce unemployment and generate economic growth
through the designation of Federal tax incentives and award of grants to distressed
communities. The monies for the first round of Empowerment Zones and Enterprise
Communities have been criticized for undertaking more community development activities in
areas such as education, housing, and infrastructure than they did economic opportunity
activities such as job training and assistance to businesses.
http://portal.hud.gov/hudportal/HUD?src=/program_offices/comm_planning/economicdevelopment/programs/rc
http://www.gao.gov/new.items/d06727.pdf

(59) Universal Design involves:
I. The design of the built environment and products usable by all persons
II. Without the need for specialized adaptations or design
III. Striving to make the design of places and products equally appealing to all
IV. The creation of products only to be used by the disabled.
A) I, IV
B) I, II, III, IV
C) II, III, IV
D) I, II, III

The correct answer is “D”.
Universal design refers to broad-spectrum ideas meant to produce buildings, products and
environments that are inherently accessible to both people without disabilities and people with
disabilities. The term “Universal design” was coined by the architect Ronald L. Mace to describe
the concept of designing all products and the built environment to be aesthetic and usable to the
greatest extent possible by everyone, regardless of their age, ability, or status in life. Universal
Design involves making our homes and cities accessible to all people. Source: APA Planning
Magazine April 2002, “What Difference has the ADA Made?” by Terry S. Szold, page 12.

(60) Early 20th century zoning focused on:
(A) Providing affordable housing
(B) Creating jobs and employment
(C) Preventing sprawl
(D) Protecting home values

The correct answer is “D”
The primary purpose of zoning is to segregate uses that are thought to be incompatible. In
practice, zoning also is used to prevent new development from interfering with (or being a
nuisance to) existing uses and/or to preserve the “character” of a community, especially
residential property values. The introduction of zoning in the early 1900s launched a revolution
in American land use regulation and planning. Beginning with height regulations in Washington,
D.C., in 1899, efforts to control the type and intensity of land use spread to many cities. In 1908,
Los Angeles adopted the nation’s first use of a zoning ordinance to protect its expanding
residential areas from industrial nuisances. Over the next two decades, state legislatures nation
wide granted to cities the power “to regulate the height, area, location, and use of buildings in
any designated part or parts of their corporation limits.” The U.S. Supreme Court’s sanction of
this exercise of a city’s police power over land use came first in Hadacheck v. Sebastian
(1915), which involved the Los Angeles ordinance, and culminated in the definitive Village of
Euclid v. Ambler Realty Corporation case in 1926.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zoning
https://www.dartmouth.edu/~wfischel/Papers/WAF-zoning%20ELEpdf.pdf
https://www.asu.edu/courses/aph294/total-readings/silver%20–%20racialoriginsofzoning.pdf

(61) Republican Senator George Norris of Nebraska is notable for ensuring Congress
pass:
(A) The 1964 Civil Rights Act
(B) The 1954 Housing Act
(C) The 1933 Tennessee Valley Authority charter
(D) The 1901 plan for the mall of Washington, D.C.

The correct answer is “C”
Nebraska’s Republican George Norris, the man many consider history’s “greatest United States
senator,” served in the Senate for 30 years, and throughout the New Deal era, he regularly
collaborated with President Franklin Roosevelt. His greatest legislative monument was passage
of the Tennessee Valley Authority charter, to establish a federally owned corporation to provide
navigation, flood control, electricity generation, fertilizer manufacturing, and economic
development to the Tennessee Valley, a region particularly affected by the Great Depression,
but which did not include Nebraska.
https://www.senate.gov/artandhistory/history/minute/George_Norris.htm
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_W._Norris#Senator

(62) The Mugler v Kansas Supreme Court case:
A) Upheld the state’s use of “police power”
B) Was the first case to find a “taking”
C) Upheld the constitutionality of the Morrill Act
D) Found an unconstitutional restriction on first amendment speech.

The correct answer is “A”
The Mugler v. Kansas (1887) Supreme Court decision held that a state’s legislation prohibiting
the manufacture of intoxicating liquor within its jurisdiction does not infringe on any right or
privilege secured by the Constitution of the United States, including the 14th amendment, was
not a taking, and found that the authority for the statute strictly relied upon Kansas’s police
power.
See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mugler_v._Kansas
http://www.oyez.org/cases/1851-1900/1887/1887_0

(63) The hallmarks of a Third Place:
I. Maximizes the amount of residential, business and leisure space within walking distance
of public transport
II. Are open and readily accessible to those who occupy them
III. Involves regulars
IV. Typically located within a radius of ¼ to ½ mile (400 to 800 m) around a central transit
stop
(A) II, III
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “A”
In community building, the third place (or third space) is the social surroundings separate from
the two usual social environments of home (“first place”) and the office (“second place”).
Examples of third places would be environments such as cafes, clubs, public libraries, or parks.
In his influential book The Great Good Place, Ray Oldenburg argues that third places are
important for civil society, democracy, civic engagement, and establishing feelings of a sense of
place, and have the following hallmarks:
* Free or inexpensive
* Food and drink, while not essential, are important
* Highly accessible: proximate for many (walking distance)
* Involve regulars – those who habitually congregate there
* Welcoming and comfortable
* Both new friends and old should be found there
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_place
https://www.planetizen.com/node/90616/third-space-first

(64) Superblock is a concept most often associated with:
I. Le Corbusier’s Radiant City
II. Clarence Perry’s “Neighborhood Unit”
III. Radburn, New Jersey
IV. Urban renewal public housing projects
(A) I, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (D)
In 1929, Clarence Perry developed the neighborhood unit plan in response to the advent of the
automobile and was also an attempt to identify the local community as a separate entity with its
own qualities and needs. The neighborhood unit was to be distinct enclave, separate from the
rest of the city. Perry’s idea was to create hom*ogeneous “superblocks” separating vehicular and
pedestrian traffic; providing ample open space; and developing community life around the
neighborhood school. Perry’s concept was the basis for the development of the widely
acclaimed plan for Radburn, New Jersey, which incorporated Perry’s concepts - the superblock,
interior park, higher density clustering near the parkland, and hierarchial traffic separation. Le
Corbusier’s “The Radiant City” (1935) envisioned a city laid out in a near perfect grid of
superblocks, which became the basis for much of the public housing projects later built in the
United States

(65) Right-to-farm laws are typically about:
(A) Governmental takings
(B) Coming to the nuisance
(C) Combating urban sprawl
(D) Agricultural inverse condemnation

The correct answer is (B)
Right-to-farm laws are designed to accomplish one or both of the following objectives: (1) to
strengthen the legal position of farmers when neighbors sue them for private nuisance; and (2)
to protect farmers from anti-nuisance ordinances and unreasonable controls on farming
operations. In most states, “coming to the nuisance” does not necessarily prevent farm
neighbors from winning in court, but a farmer usually has a stronger legal case if his or her
operation was there before the plaintiff moved to the area. Right-to-farm laws give farmers a
legal defense against nuisance suits; the strength of that defense depends on the provisions of
the law and the circ*mstances of the case.
http://www.farmland.org/programs/states/wa/documents/APPENDIXI-Righttofarmlaws.pdf

(66) Which of the following is an alternative to optimization for cases where there are
multiple and competing objectives in which one gives up the idea of obtaining a “best”
solution?
A) Satisficing
B) Correlation
C) LOS
D) Brainstorming

The correct answer is “A”
Satisficing is a method for making a choice from a set of alternatives encountered sequentially
when one does not know much about the possibilities ahead of time. In such instances, there
may be no optimal solution for when to stop searching for further alternatives. Satisficing takes
the shortcut of setting an adjustable aspiration level and ending the search for alternatives as
soon as one is encountered that exceeds the aspiration level. Source: www.argospress.com

(67) St. Louis, Pittsburgh, and Louisville have interesting histories, dating back to the
late 1700s and the Treaties of Fontainbleau and Paris. Among other commonalties, these
three cities:
A) all were built on rivers
B) all were ceded to the United States by Spain
C) all were industrial cities
D) all of the above

The correct answer is A)
All three cities were built on rivers. St. Louis on the Mississippi River, Pittsburgh on the
Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers, and Louisville on the Ohio River.

(68) When a bill is first introduced in Congress, it:
(A) Is sent to both houses
(B) Undergoes its initial vote
(C) Is referred to committee
(D) Is routed to the Congressional Budget Office

The correct answer is “C”
Upon reading the introduced bill, if no objection heard, the bill is considered read twice, and
Is referred to the appropriate committee. Bills may be referred to more than one committee and
it may be split so that parts are sent to different committees. Once passed in one house of
Congress, the bill is sent to the other house for consideration. If the other house passes a
different version of the bill, the bill may be subject to a conference committee to develop a
compromise before going back to both houses for a vote.
https://votesmart.org/education/how-a-bill-becomes-law#.WdL-hjCQzIU
https://www.senate.gov/reference/resources/pdf/legprocessflowchart.pdf

(69) For parking lot planning purposes, what is considered the typical length of a motor
vehicle?
A) 12 feet
B) 14 feet
C) 15 feet
D) 17 feet

The correct answer is D)
Although automobiles, on average, are shorter than they were 10 and 20 years ago, the typical
length for planning purposes remains approximately 17-18 feet, thanks in part to trucks, vans
and SUVs. Generally, the maximum length for planning purposes is 19 feet.
http://www.webpages.uidaho.edu/niatt_labmanual/chapters/parkinglotdesign/theoryandconcepts
/parkingstalllayoutconsiderations.htm
http://www.uh.edu/facilities-services/departments/fpc/design-guidelines/09_parking.pdf

(70) According to the Highway Capacity Manual (1994), if a roadway has a “E” service
level, which of the following would best describe it?
A) stable flow, moderate delays, and the speed is determined by traffic
B) unstable flow, near capacity, limited speed, and very long delays
C) free flow, high operating speed with no delays
D) very low speeds, frequent stoppages, volume is greater than capacity

(71) In order, identify the unique roles of facilitators, mediators, and arbitrators:
I. Needs to keep the conversation on track and possess of skill of understanding cultural
aspects of the conversation while presenting an opening statement and the opportunity
for disputants’ opening statements, and joint discussion
II. Encourage everyone’s opinions and make sure that they do not make statements that
may be interpreted as judgments
III. Present an unbiased and objective nature
IV. Conducts a contested hearing between the parties, and in many cases acts as a judge,
rendering a binding decision
(A) II, IV,I
(B) I, II, III
(C) III, II, IV
(D) II, I, IV

The correct answer is “D“
“Facilitation” is the use of a neutral third party to help multi-party groups accomplish the content
of their work by providing process leadership and expertise. “Mediation” is the use of a neutral
third person to help parties reach a voluntary resolution of a dispute. It is informal, confidential,
and flexible, focusing on interests rather than positions, and on practical and legal choices.
“Arbitration” is an alternative to litigation in which an arbitrator or panel of arbitrators listen to the
positions of the disputing parties in a relatively informal proceeding and then issue a decision on
how the situation should be resolved. All methods have in common the need for an unbiased
and objective nature
https://www.isixsigma.com/operations/human-resources/dispute-resolution-facilitatorsmediators-arbitrators/
http://landforgood.org/resources/faqs/difference-facilitation-mediation-arbitration/

(72) The use of information and technology to engage citizens, deliver city services, and
enhance urban systems are characteristics of:
(A) Samoan Circles
(B) Smart Cities
(C) IT-driven urbanism
(D) Edge Cities

The correct answer is “B”
The term “Smart City” has been around since the 1990s, and while definitions and applications
vary, common elements among them are that Smart Cities use information and technology
(internet of things) to engage citizens, deliver city services, and enhance urban systems. The
use of Smart City technologies results in cost efficiencies, resilient infrastructure, and an
improved urban experience.
https://www.planning.org/ontheradar/smartcities/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Smart_city
https://www.planetizen.com/node/89917/smart-cities-high-costs-high-potential

(73) Charging users of roads with higher fees during high peak usage is best described
as:
A) Sustainability fees
B) Tolls
C) Congestion pricing
D) Congestion transaction fee

The correct answer is “C”
Congestion pricing is the practice of charging motorists more to use a roadway, bridge or tunnel
during periods of the heaviest use. Its purpose is to reduce automobile use during periods of
peak congestion, thereby easing traffic and encouraging commuters to walk, bike or take mass
transit as an alternative.
https://www.planning.org/planning/2008/may/congestion.htm
http://transalt.org/issues/congestion

(74) If a planner wishes to contact the Ethics Officer to obtain a written advisory opinion,
they must first:
(A) Send a detailed description of the relevant facts and a clear statement of the question to
the Ethics Officer
(B) Set up a phone call with the Ethics Officer to discuss
(C) Contact the Ethics Committee to discuss
(D) Review past advisory opinions

The correct answer is “A”
Any AICP member with a question about whether specific conduct conforms to the Code of
Ethics and Professional Conduct may seek a formal opinion from the Ethics Committee. Any
such member should send a detailed description of the relevant facts and a clear statement of
the question to the Ethics Officer.
https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/

(75) What is the central underpinning of Ian McHarg’s seminal book entitled “Design With
Nature”?
A) All city and regional planning projects should include some form of vegetation
B) Interior plantscaping can be utilized to soften large development projects
C) Landscape design and planning should reflect, respect, and harmonize with the land’s
natural forms and processes
D) Only natural materials should be used in architecture

The correct answer is C)
Ian McHarg set the standard for modern landscape architecture and planning with a design
approach that made natural forms and processes paramount in the design process. Formerly,
much landscape design and planning had occurred without regard to nature’s inherent wisdom,
instead introducing foreign manmade forms on the land without regard to natural context. Mr.
McHarg employed a thorough inventory of existing conditions and program elements and a
layering system which facilitated easier analysis and manipulation of these various layers of
information. The design goal was intended to be holistic and in harmony with the land’s natural
forms and processes.

(76) How appropriate would it be for the city planning board to hold an executive session
for final approval of an impact fee rate structure?
A) appropriate and unlikely to be overturned in court
B) inappropriate and likely to be overturned in court
C) unclear and unlikely to be overturned in court
D) insufficient information

The correct answer is B)
This discussion must be held in a public meeting.

(77) A 1.4 acre parcel has been developed with a three story office building, a parking
area and a storm water retention area. Assuming each floor of the office building is
10,000 gsf, the parking area contains 480 spaces and the retention area is capable of
handling a 25-year storm, the FAR is approximately equal to which of the following?
A) 0.5
B) 2.0
C) 0.4
D) 1.0

The correct answer is A)
FAR (floor area ratio) = building floor area sf / parcel sf. The 3-story building has a total of
30,000 square feet. The overall 1.4 acre site contains 60,984 square feet (1.4 acres x 43,560
sf/acre = 60,984 sf). For this site, the FAR is equivalent to 30,000 sf / 60,984 sf = 0.492 or
approximately 0.5.

The correct answer is “D”
One of the advantages of the Nominal Group Technique is that it balances the influence of
individuals by limiting the power of opinion makers (particularly advantageous for use where
peer leaders may have an exaggerated effect over group decisions, or in meetings of
collaboratives, where established leaders tend to dominate the discussion). The nominal group
technique is particularly useful:
* When some group members are much more vocal than others.
* When some group members think better in silence.
* When there is concern about some members not participating.
* When the group does not easily generate quantities of ideas.
* When all or some group members are new to the team.
* When the issue is controversial or there is heated conflict.
* When there is a power-imbalance between facilitator and participants or participants: the
structure of the NGT session can balance these out.
* When stakeholders like a(/some) quantitative output of the process.
https://www.cdc.gov/healthyyouth/evaluation/pdf/brief7.pdf
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nominal_group_technique
http://www.iwr.usace.army.mil/Portals/70/docs/iwrreports/82-R-1.pdf

(79) Of the following growth management techniques which would likely be used to
protect water supplies while land within watershed is being acquired for watershed
protection?
(A) Building permit caps.
(B) Subdivision phasing.
(C) Large lot zoning.
(D) Building permit moratorium.

The correct answer is “D”
A building moratorium is appropriate to temporarily stop construction within a watershed while
government is acquiring land, as long as it’s for a reasonable timeframe (e.g. less than 32
months).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tahoe-Sierra_Preservation_Council,_Inc._v._Tahoe_Regional_Planning_Agency

(80) Performance Zoning:
(A) Divides land use into individually performing residential, commercial and industrial uses
(B) Provides a reward-based system to encourage development that meets established
urban development goals
(C) Uses goal-oriented criteria to establish review parameters for proposed development
projects
(D) Regulates not the type of land use, but the form that land use may take

The correct answer is “C”
Also known as “effects-based planning”, performance zoning uses performance-based or goaloriented criteria to establish review parameters for proposed development projects. It is land
use regulation based upon the application of specific performance standards. Performance
zoning is intended to provide flexibility, rationality, transparency and accountability, avoiding the
arbitrariness of the Euclidean approach and better accommodating market principles and
private property rights with environmental protection. It is not widely used in the U.S. (A) is
single-use “Euclidean” zoning; (B) is “incentive” zoning; (D) is a form based code.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zoning#Zoning_types_in_the_United_States
http://www-pam.usc.edu/volume1/v1i1a4s4.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zoning#Types_of_Zoning

(81) Town design concept where every parcel is 1 acre in size and connected via highway
and rail.
(A) Garden City
(B) New Town
(C) Broadacre City
(D) Suburb

The correct answer is “”C”
Broadacre City was the antithesis of a city and the epitome of the newly born suburbia, shaped
through Wright’s particular vision. Each U.S. family would be given a one acre plot of land from
the federal lands reserves, there would be a train station and a few office and apartment
buildings in Broadacre City, but the apartment dwellers are expected to be a small minority. All
important transport is to be done by automobile and the pedestrian can exist safely only within
the confines of the one acre plots where most of the population dwells.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Broadacre_City
https://paleofuture.gizmodo.com/broadacre-city-frank-lloyd-wrights-unbuilt-suburban-ut1509433082

(82) What Agency can be described as responding to, planning for, recovering from and
mitigating against disaster?
A) The Army Corps of Engineers
B) Federal Emergency Management Agency
C) The Disaster Relief Agency
D) Federal Bureau of Investigation

The correct answer is “B”
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is an agency tasked with responding to,
planning for, recovering from, and mitigating against disaster. It started with the Congressional
Act of 1803. This act is considered the first piece of disaster legislation, and began by providing
assistance to a New Hampshire town following an extensive fire. In the century that followed, ad
hoc legislation was passed more than 100 times in response to hurricanes, earthquakes, floods
and other natural disasters. Source: http://www.fema.gov

(83) In the United States, the “Neighborhood Unit” concept is attributed to:
A) Kevin Lynch.
B) Clarence Perry.
C) Ian McHarg.
D) Lewis Mumford

The correct answer is B)
Clarence Perry lived in Forest Hills Gardens in Queens, NY and published an essay on the
concept of the neighborhood unit in 1929. Forest Hill Gardens, developed by Frederick
Law Olmsted, Jr. in 1911, inspired the neighborhood unit concept. Perry defined a
neighborhood as a self-contained area within a 5-minute walking radius, bounded by major
streets with shops at the intersections and a school in the middle. Kevin Lynch wrote Image
of the City in 1960. Ian McHarg wrote Design with Nature in 1969. Lewis Mumford wrote
Culture of Cities in 1938.
See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neighbourhood_unit

(84) The mayor asks you, the Planning Director, to permit accessory uses. Accessory
uses can be described as:
A) Permitted only if they are incidental to the principle use
B) Allowed by right
C) Allowed only by a special review
D) Legally established under the zoning regulations that were in effect at the time of their
development

The correct answer is “A”
There are generally three types of categories allowed in permitted land uses: 1) Principle uses,
these are uses that are allowed by right; 2) Accessory uses, these are land uses that are
permitted only if they are incidental to the principle use; 3) Special uses, these are land uses
allowed only by a special review. Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual
for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”, page 131.

(85) If built today, the White City would be considered a form of:
(A) Suburban Sprawl
(B) Tactical Urbanism
(C) New Urbanism
(D) Smart Growth

The correct answer is “B”
Short-term, community-based projects—from pop-up parks to open streets initiatives—have
become a powerful and adaptable new tool of urban activists, planners, and policy-makers
seeking to drive lasting improvements in their cities and beyond. These quick, often low-cost,
and creative projects are the essence of the Tactical Urbanism movement. From provisional
Roman military encampments, to les bouquinistes illegally selling books along the banks of the
Seine in sixteenth-century Paris, to the temporary White City of the Chicago Columbian
Exposition of 1893, the hallmarks of Tactical Urbanism have been inscribed in city-building
patterns throughout history. The layout of the Chicago White City was, in large part, designed by
John Wellborn Root, Daniel Burnham, Frederick Law Olmsted and Charles B. Atwood. It was
the prototype of what Burnham and his colleagues thought a city should be. It was designed to
follow Beaux Arts principles of design, namely French neoclassical architecture principles based
on symmetry, balance, and splendor. The exposition covered more than 600 acres (2.4 km2),
featuring over 200 new (but purposely temporary) buildings of predominantly neoclassical
architecture, canals and lagoons, and people and cultures from 46 countries. Almost all of the
fair’s structures were designed to be temporary; of the more than 200 buildings erected for the
fair, the only two which still stand in place are the Palace of Fine Arts and the World’s Congress
Auxiliary Building.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tactical_urbanism
https://ggwash.org/view/37884/woonerfs-were-tactical-urbanism-before-there-was-tacticalurbanism
https://islandpress.org/book/tactical-urbanism
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Daniel_Burnham#World.27s_Columbian_Exposition

(86) Landscape Urbanism is:
(A) A new urbanist principle
(B) A planning theory that the best way to organize cities is through the design of the city’s
landscape, rather than the design of its buildings
(C) The implementation of City Beautiful concepts
(D) A Smart Growth concept

The correct answer is “B”
Landscape urbanism is a theory of urban planning arguing that the best way to organize cities is
through the design of the city’s landscape, rather than the design of its buildings. The phrase
‘landscape urbanism’ first appeared in the mid-1990s. Since this time, the phrase ‘landscape
urbanism’ has taken on many different uses, but is most often cited as a postmodernist or postpostmodernist response to the “failings” of New Urbanism and the shift away from the
comprehensive visions, and demands, for modern architecture and urban planning. One
opponent to Landscape Urbanism is New Urbanism, led by Andres Duany, which promotes
walkable communities and smart growth with its Transit Oriented Development (TOD) and
Traditional Neighborhood Design (TND). In response to landscape urbanism’s focus on
expansive green space in urban development, Duany stated that “density and urbanism are not
the same.” Further, “unless there is tremendous density, human beings will not walk.” The result
is patches of green sprawl that lose connectivity to the greater network.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Landscape_urbanism

(87) Of the following techniques for preserving agricultural land, which would be the
MOST effective?
(A) Transfer of Development Rights.
(B) Purchase of Development Rights.
(C) Building permit moratorium.
(D) Right to farm ordinance.

The correct is “B”
Once development rights have been purchased, the land is likely to stay in agricultural use
indefinitely

(88) Detailed information about a community’s debt would be vital for carrying out which
of the following tasks?
A) Establishing assessed values for property in the coming year
B) Applying to HUD for Section 8 funds
C) Presenting a venture-capital fund to area financial institutions
D) Requesting a change in bond rating

The correct answer is “D”

(89) The planning director asks you to lead a neighborhood plan for Old Town, one of the
poorest areas of your municipality. Among the issues you’d likely need to address in
your planning are:
I. Combating Sprawl
II. Attracting the Creative Class
III. The provision of Skinny Streets
IV. Resolving food deserts
A) I, II, III
B) II, IV
C) II, III
D) IV

The correct answer is “D”
A food desert is a geographic area where affordable & healthy food is difficult to obtain,
particularly for those without access to an automobile. Food deserts often exist in rural areas
and low-income, poor neighborhoods populated by ethnic or racial minorities that lack
convenient access to affordable, healthful food.
http://www.planning.org/planning/2009/aug/whenaccess.htm
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Food_desert

(90) The Utopianism theory of planning is often linked to works by:
I. Le Corbusier
II. Daniel Burnham
III. Frank Lloyd Wright
IV. Charles Lindbloom
(A) I, II
(B) I, II, III
(C) II, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (B)
Utopianism believes that planning is most effective when it proposes sweeping changes that
capture the public imagination. Some examples include Le Corbusier’s “Contemporary City”;
Ebenezer Howard’s “Garden City”; Daniel Burnham’s “White City”; and Frank Lloyd Wright’s
“Broadacre City”. Each of these “visionary” plans has as its underlying purpose the
improvement of mankind’s urban experience through extensive changes in conventional
methods.

(91) You are responsible for recommending contracts to the city council. Your immediate
supervisor has asked you to prepare a recommendation for a large contract for an
individual you know is a good friend of your supervisor. After reviewing the contract, you
conclude that the contract amount is not commensurate with the scope of work
provided. You believe the contract is a waste of taxpayer dollars if it were to be granted.
What might you do first?
A) Discuss the assignment with the City Administrator
B) Ask to be reassigned to another project
C) Verify the data and analysis and submit your report for approval by the Supervisor
D) Recommend approval of the contract

The correct answer is C)
The first thing to do might be to carefully review the data and procedures used in the
analysis for accuracy and completeness (Ethical Principle 1). You should document
everything during this entire process such as the date and nature of your supervisor’s request
and the sources of data used to draw the conclusion that the consultant’s price is too high. Then
write your report and submit it to your supervisor.

(92) What happened in the early 20th century to bring about the City Humane Movement?
A) Jacob Riis’s publication of How the Other Half Lives
B) The great depression
C) The beginning of advocacy planning
D) Jane Addams’ opening of Hull House

The correct answer is B)
The City Humane Movement developed as a result of the Depression of the 1930s. It
concentrated on social and economic issues and ways of alleviating the problems of
unemployment, poverty, and urban plight.
From: http://www.cityofbenson.com/vertical/sites/%7BF59197D1-30ED-49AE-8751-
2EBA89C105BA%7D/uploads/pzhandbook_email.pdf
http://www.csun.edu/~schoi/urbs310_planninghistory_wk6.pdf

(93) In Earnest Burgess’ Concentric Zone Theory (1923) everything starts from the center
and grows out from there in the form of broad belts or zones. Which of the following is
NOT true about these zones?
(A) The first zone is the downtown center in which is focused the economic, political, and
cultural life of the city.
(B) The second zone is known as the “zone of transition”, which is both area-wise and
population-wise an area of limbo.
(C) The third zone is where the parks and open space are located.
(D) Immediately adjacent to the central business district is an area slated for expansion if
business is good.

The correct answer is “C”
The concentric zone model, also known as the Burgess model is one of the earliest theoretical
models to explain urban social structures. Based on human ecology theory done by Burgess
and applied on Chicago, it was the first to give the explanation of distribution of social groups
within urban areas. This concentric ring model depicts urban land usage in concentric rings: the
Central Business District (or CBD) was in the middle of the model, and the city expanded in
rings with different land uses. The zones identified are:
1. The center was the central business district,
2. The transition zone of mixed residential and commercial uses or the zone of transition
3. Working class residential homes
4. Better quality middle-class homes (Outer Suburbs) or zone of better housing
5. Commuters zone
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Concentric_zone_model

(94) After the City Council appointed the 12 member Citizens Steering Committee it is
the director’s job to represent the city as the sole staff person on the committee. To help
facilitate the committee meeting she decides to?
I. Assume the role of committee chairperson.
II. Advise the committee to select a chairperson from their own ranks.
III. Make a list of discussion topics and tell the group what they should talk about.
IV. Come to the initial meeting and then just drop by every-once-in-a-while on meeting dates
to make sure things are running okay.
A) I only
B) II only
C) II and III
D) II, III and IV

The correct answer is “B”
This is a “Citizens” Steering Committee, with the Director appointed to represent the City as its
“sole staff person on the committee”. The Director should not take over its leadership, direct its
discussion topics, nor fail to staff the committee.

(95) Of the following, which works best to conserve energy?
A) Voluntary rationing of fuel
B) Solar heating
C) Telecommuting
D) Battery powered vehicles

The correct answer is “C”
Telecommuting to work creates a great potential to save energy. The three major areas where
energy can be conserved are vehicle-related materials and resources (e.g., fuel and vehicle
maintenance); highway-related materials and resources (e.g., maintenance); and office-related
materials and resources (e.g., janitorial services, power, water, and climate control).
Organizations with a large number of telecommuters have actually reduced their office space
requirements, and consequently, their rents, by setting a policy for telecommuting employees to
share desks and other resources at company facilities.
A recent study found that less than 4% of the American workforce works from home, although
40% of the workforce have jobs that would allow them to telecommute. If only 26 million
employees and self-employed people worked from home at least one day each month, this
could reduce Gulf oil imports by 24% and reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 33 million
metric tons each year.
http://library.ahima.org/xpedio/groups/public/documents/ahima/bok1_000051.hcsp?dDocName=bok1_000051
http://www.tennessee.gov/tacir/PDF_FILES/Other_Issues/telecommuting.pdf

(96) Seaside, Florida is an example of:
I. Greenfield development
II. New Urbanism
III. Walkable Community
IV. Smart Growth
(A) IV
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “C”
Seaside remains a remarkable and influential achievement two decades after its founding. In
many ways Seaside, Florida, is antithetical to what many would consider to be the ideal new
urbanist icon of a walkable community. However, it was a “greenfield” project, far from any
metropolitan area or urban growth boundary, with no connection to transit, its landowners
consist almost entirely of the well-to-do, and it is a resort with only a tiny year-round population.
The vision sprang from developer Robert Davis and architects Andres Duany and Elizabeth
Plater-Zyberk, surely one of the most fortunate collaborations in modern planning. Seaside
articulated the ideas of urban and architectural codes that have become so important to many
practitioners of the New Urbanism (pedestrian scale, compact, mix of uses). As greenfield
development, it did not comply with the Smart Growth principles.
https://www.cnu.org/publicsquare/seaside-twenty

(97) According to Harvey Molotch, likely the most important factor affecting the shape of
the city is:
(A) Public planning
(B) Real estate interests
(C) Transportation improvements
(D) Local banking interests

The answer is (B)
Harvey Molotch’s 1976 classic paper “The City as a Growth Machine” took the dominant
convention of studying urban land use and turned it on its head. Molotch’s great insight was to
understand that land parcels are not empty fields awaiting human action, but are associated
with specific interests: commercial, sentimental, and psychological; and that especially
important in the shaping of cities were the real estate interests of those whose properties gain
value when growth takes place. These actors make up what Molotch termed “the local growth
machine” – a term now standard in the urban studies lexicon.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harvey_Molotch#The_City_as_a_Growth_Machine

(98) The need for subdivision ordinances stems from which of the following?
I. The desire to avoid the division of land into parcels which cannot be developed.
II. A more efficient method of property transfers.
III. Protection against street layout which does not conform to that in the Master Plan.
IV. To ensure the provision of adequate public services.
A) II and IV
B) I, II and III
C) III and IV
D) I, III, and IV

The correct answer is “A“

The correct answer is “D”
A pocket park is a small park accessible to the general public, often created on a single vacant
building lot or on small, irregular pieces of land. Pocket parks can be urban, suburban or rural,
and can be on public or private land. Although they are too small for physical activities, pocket
parks provide greenery, a place to sit outdoors, and sometimes a children’s playground. They
may be created around a monument, historic marker or art project.
Parklets are miniature parks, effectively sited on underused public pavement such as parking
spaces and serving as an extension of the sidewalk to provide amenities and green space for
people using the street. The basic parklet is a platform with benches, chairs, and planters.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pocket_park
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parklet

(100) What type of organizational approach has the planner serving a specific client of
group and doing so openly?
A) Fishbowl Planning
B) Alinsky Organization
C) Advocacy Planning
D) Ladder of Citizen Participation

The correct answer is “C”
Advocacy Planning has an assumption that there is no common, overall, or identified public
interest to be served. But instead the planner serves a variety of groups with often diverse and
opposing interests and goals. A planner should serve a given group (client) and do so openly.
“Fishbowl Planning” is a type of public participation technique that allows citizens to address
themselves to proposals through workshop formats; an “Alinsky Organization” typically has a
paid organizer, but not necessarily a planner, involved in citizen organizing with a basic
philosophy that power is the basis for successfully negotiating for economic and political gains;
the “Ladder of Citizen Participation”, developed by Sherry Arnstein, defines citizen participation
in terms of the amount of control citizens have over policy decisions. Source: “2011-2012
Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of
Certified Planners” Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association,
“Citizen Participation in Planning” by Terry Langlois, AICP, Memphis TN, page 124.
Fishbowl planning - http://www.dse.vic.gov.au/effective-engagement/toolkit/tool-fishbowl
Alinsky Organization - http://www.uic.edu/depts/lib/findingaids/MSIAF_71

(101) You are the planner for Newton City who is responsible for converting the city’s
current zoning code into a form-based code. Components of the code you are
developing contain standards addressing:
I. Building configuration and features
II. Building type and frontage
III. Public spaces
IV. Land use
(A) I
(B) II
(C) I, II
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (D)
The typical components of a form-based code include:
1. Building Form Standards: Building form standards are form-based zone standards that
replace the existing zone standards. They are the core component of an FBC and
typically regulate the configuration, features, and functions (uses) for buildings that
define and shape the public realm. To be the most effective, their content should be
generated primarily by community character documentation as opposed to the
preexisting zone standards for each area.
2. Regulating Plan: A regulating plan is the map assigning the code’s various standards to
physical locations, including the form-based zone standards. It replaces the zoning map
in a form-based code. In a citywide form-based code it is the same as the zoning map
and will have form-based and non-form-based zones on it. It is usually applied in a more
fine-grained manner than a zoning map, taking existing and intended form into account.
3. Frontage Type Standards: Frontage type standards regulate the appropriate transition
from the private realm to the public realm. The ultimate intent of frontage standards is to
ensure, after a building is located correctly, that its interface with the public realm and
the transition between the two are detailed appropriately.
4. Public Space Standards: Public space standards are specifications for the elements
within the public realm, including thoroughfares and civic spaces. Thoroughfare
standards incorporate detailed requirements for sidewalk, parking lane, and travel lane
widths and street tree locations. Civic space standards regulate parameters, such as
maximum and minimum size, and introduce a range of nonsuburban civic space types
into a city or town.
5. Building Type Standards: Many FBCs include building type standards that are
supplemental to the building form standards. They introduce an appropriate range of
building types that are allowed within each form-based zone and regulate form
characteristics specific to each type. To be effectively regulated, especially when applied
at a larger scale, building type standards should be tied back directly to zone standards.
A common misconception is that form-based codes do not regulate land use. While form-based
coding uses form rather than use for its framework or organizing principle, form-based codes
are not silent on use and do include use tables. The use regulations simply become tertiary to
the form standards instead of being the primary regulation, and they are simplified and vetted by
the code writer so as not to compromise the intent of the form-based code.
FROM: APA’s Form-Based Zoning; “Zoning Practice” 2013(5); pp. 3-4

(102) Rochester’s downtown CBD allows a maximum base FAR of 15. The CBD allows
bonus FARs of 2 for affordable housing, and 3 for historic preservation. If the developer
is approved to include affordable housing and historic preservation, then the resulting
maximum FAR will be:
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 20

The correct answer is “D“
Through the land use regulatory technique known as “incentive zoning” or “bonus zoning,” cities
may grant private real estate developers the right to alternatives to strict zoning restrictions (for
example, those relating to height, bulk or density regulation) in return for voluntary agreements
to provide specified urban design features, such as plazas, atriums, parks, social facilities, or to
provide publicly desired development, such as affordable housing or historic preservation. For
Floor Area Ratios (FAR), the bonuses are typically provided in addition to the maximum base
FAR (even where for additional residential development).
http://www1.nyc.gov/site/planning/zoning/glossary.page#incentive_zoning
https://chicagocode.org/17-4-1000/
https://litigation-essentials.lexisnexis.com/webcd/app?action=DocumentDisplay&crawlid=1&doctype=cite&docid=2-
8+Zoning+and+Land+Use+Controls+8.syn&srctype=smi&srcid=2BD1&key=c55118d7511310714644b95eac078240

(103) Bias in statistics:
(A) Can be due to choosing random data for statistical analysis
(B) Can be minimized by increasing the size of the sample
(C) Can be caused by faulty design or deficient execution of the sampling process
(D) Is a consequence of the fact that sample size is much less when compared to the
population size

The correct answer is “C”
Bias is the systematic error resulting in deviation in estimates of population parameters caused
by faulty design and/or deficient execution of sampling process. The bias is not a result of
sample size and hence increasing the sample size will not reduce bias in estimates. The two
broad types of bias include Measurement Bias (i.e. errors occurring during real time sampling)
and Non-representative sampling Bias (often intentional, “selection bias” = due to not
implementing random methods during the selection process, which results in either inadequate
or excess representation of some elements in the population, sometimes encouraged by survey
sponsors to project their interest in the sample inference).
http://math.tutorvista.com/statistics/bias.html
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bias_(statistics)

(104) Two American 19th century architects who revived medieval architecture:
I. Alexander Jackson Davis
II. James Renwick, Jr.
III. Daniel Burnham
IV. Richard Morris Hunt
(A) I, II
(B) II, III
(C) I, IV
(D) II, IV

The correct answer is “A”
The Gothic Revival style is part of the mid-19th century picturesque and romantic movement in
architecture, reflecting the public’s taste for buildings inspired by medieval design. The Gothic
Revival style in America was advanced by architects Alexander Jackson Davis and landscape
architect Andrew Jackson Downing, authors of influential house plan books, Rural Residences
(1837), Cottage Residences (1842), and The Architecture of Country Houses (1850).
Throughout the 19th and early 20th century, Gothic Revival was used across Europe,
throughout the British Empire, and in the United States for public buildings and homes for the
people who could afford the style, but the most common use for Gothic Revival architecture was
in the building of churches. Churches all over in the countries that were influenced by the Gothic
Revival, small and large, whether isolated in small settlements or in the big city, there is at least
one church done in Gothic Revival style. The largest and most famous Gothic cathedrals in the
U.S.A. are St. Patrick’s Cathedral in New York City and Washington National Cathedral.
Alexander Jackson Davis was one of the most successful and influential American architects of
his generation, known particularly for his association with the Gothic Revival style. This style
was promoted as an appropriate design for rural settings, with its complex and irregular shapes
and forms fitting well into the natural landscape. Thus, the Gothic Revival style was often
chosen for country homes and houses in rural or small town settings.
James Renwick, Jr. was one of the most successful American architects of his time. His finest
achievement, and his best-known building, St. Patrick’s Cathedral, is on the corner of Fifth
Avenue and 51st Street in New York City. The new cathedral was designed by James Renwick,
Jr. in the Gothic Revival style. The cathedral is the most ambitious essay in Gothic that the
revival of the style produced and is a mixture of German, French, and English Gothic influences.
http://www.phmc.state.pa.us/portal/communities/architecture/styles/gothic-revival.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_Renwick,_Jr.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alexander_Jackson_Davis
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Richard_Morris_Hunt

(105) The mayor asks you, as Planning Director, to undertake a survey of the voting age
residents in Metropolis (i.e. 200,000) to ascertain their support for a new $10 million
Parks and Recreation bond issue. Using a random sampling technique, the reasonable
number of residents to be surveyed, in order to obtain 95% confidence in a small margin
of error (i.e. 2-4%), would be approximately:
(A) 200
(B) 1,000
(C) 10,000
(D) 20,000

(106) Which of the following would be considered staff positions in a government
agency?
I. Assistant and associate planners.
II. Police officer and fireman.
III. Personnel assistant, accountant.
IV. Garbage collector and street sweeper.
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) II and IV

The correct answer is C)
Options II and IV are considered to be “Line Employees”, rather than Staff. Staff workers derive
influence from expert authority or “authority of knowledge,” from their control of information
which may be vital to line managers, and from their closer access to upper management (e.g.
planners, accountants). Line employees directly advance an organization in its core work, such
as police and fire protection, or garbage removal in governmental agencies.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Staff_and_line

(107) Which of the following is true about neighborhood groups?
I. Officially recognizing neighborhood groups can be an excellent way to achieve citizen
involvement in the planning process.
II. Neighborhood groups are typically made up of NIMBYs who advocate “no-growth”
policies in their community.
III. Neighborhood groups and associations are usually voluntary organizations that bring
neighbors together through their own initiative to address issues of concern like
development, crime, and safety.
IV. When a neighborhood group is well organized, representative of its entire population,
and adequately managed, cities are more likely to recognize and work with them.
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I, III, and IV
D) III and IV

The correct answer is C)
It would be poor judgment and unethical to limit or exclude neighborhood groups from
community planning activities. Ideally, a community should enjoy the benefits of collaboration
between organized groups and the planning staff.

(108) A new planner is undertaking a work and non-work travel behavior study in a
metropolitan area of 2 million population for the month of July. When he charts the
results of this study on an X and Y chart for presentation to the Planning Director, the
dependent variable would consist of:
(A) The month of July
(B) Number of trips per hour
(C) Number of trips per day
(D) Time of Day

(109) Cost revenue analysis would be used:
(A) To assess whether a project will generate sufficient revenues to defray the necessary
public service costs
(B) To compare both the costs and revenues of a particular project to what a community
gains from the project’s benefits
(C) To determine the amount of revenue that you need now to have adequate money in the
future
(D) To assess the costs and revenues associated with a specific form of growth

The best definitional answer is “D”, although “A” is also appropriate
This is somewhat an unfair question, with two related answers. Cost revenue analysis focuses
exclusively on the costs and revenues associated with a specific form of growth. The result of
such an analysis is a statement of net governmental surplus or deficit expressed in purely
financial terms. “A” is Fiscal Impact Analysis (FIA); “B” is Cost-Benefit Analysis; “C” is Present
Value. Fiscal Impact Analysis is used interchangeably with “Cost-revenue analysis”.
2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Manual, p. 161.
http://books.google.com/books?id=zH6lslEBF0oC&pg=PA3&lpg=PA3&dq=%22cost+revenue+a
nalysis%22+%22fiscal+impact+analysis%22+difference&source=bl&ots=ETw4QrkEjZ&sig=035
qK3DjxAZbsCsypAT2XVTL6Hg&hl=en&sa=X&ei=gStdVNmUOcKhgwT0wIEI&ved=0CCQQ6AE
wAQ#v=onepage&q=%22cost%20revenue%20analysis%22%20%22fiscal%20impact%20analy
sis%22%20difference&f=false

(110) Orange County is quickly losing its prime agricultural lands to new suburban
development. Among the planning tools your Planning Director wishes to utilize to help
protect agricultural lands is a TDR program. The potential use of this tool for agricultural
protection will likely involve you in a discussion of the legal principles established in:
I. Penn Central Transportation Co. v. The City of New York (1978)
II. Spur Industries v. Del Webb Development Co. (1972)
III. Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty (1926)
IV. Fred F. French Investing Co. v. City of New York (1976)
(A) I
(B) II
(C) II, III
(D) I, IV

The correct answer is (D)
The Fred F. French Investing Co. v. City of New York (1976), involved a rezoning of land to
public park use, which was accompanied by a grant to its owners of transferable development
rights which could be used anywhere within a designated “receiving zone.” The Court of
Appeals reaffirmed the general rule that an owner may not, under the guise of zoning, be
deprived of all but a “bare residue” of the economic value of his property. The Court went on to
say that, in this case, severance of the development rights did not adequately preserve an
economic return for the owner since the market for them was too uncertain and their transfer
was mandatory.
In Penn Central Transportation Company v. City of New York (1978), the designation of Grand
Central Terminal as a protected landmark was at issue. The specific issue affecting TDR
concerned a provision of the city Historic Preservation regulation which granted to the owner of
the landmark the right to transfer the development rights above the terminal (i.e. “air rights”) to
other parcels of land in the vicinity. The Court noted that In the Penn Central case (as opposed
to Fred French Investing), the regulations permitted continued productive use of the property as
a railroad terminal and permitted use of the development rights in a less contingent fashion:
“These substitute rights are valuable, and provide significant, perhaps ‘fair,’ compensation for
the loss of rights above the Terminal itself.” The Penn Central case is significant for its
recognition of the concept of transferable development rights, for its utilization of their value in
determining whether land use restrictions are valid, and for its upholding of New York City’s
Landmark historic preservation law.
http://www.dos.ny.gov/lg/publications/Transfer_of_Development_Rights.pdf
http://www.planning.org/divisions/planningandlaw/propertytopics.htm#Transfer

(111) Who is involved with an organizational approach that involves organizations that
are created when an invitation is sent out by the neighborhood or organization and a
paid organizer is then sent to the neighborhood?
A) Paul Davidoff
B) Saul Alinsky
C) Sherry R. Arnstein
D) T.J. Kent

The correct answer is “B”
Alinsky’s organizations are created when an invitation is sent out by the neighborhood or
organization and a paid organizer is then sent to the neighborhood. They identify issues,
generate action, recruit and involve local leaders, and sets up a local organization if one does
not exist. Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP
Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners” Published by Chapter Presidents’
Council American Planning Association, “Citizen Participation in Planning” by Terry Langlois,
AICP, Memphis TN, pages 123-124.

(112) The mayor is asking you, the Planning Director, to development a new program
addressing the growth of megachurchs in the community. Your recommendations would
likely include a discussion of the following issues:
I. Parking and traffic considerations
II. Building codes
III. Whether regulations create a substantial burden
IV. Whether regulations are the most restrictive means
A) I, IV
B) I, II, III, IV
C) II, IV
D) I, II, III

The correct answer is “D”
The federal Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act (RLUIPA) prohibits the
imposition of certain burdens on churches and other religious institutions as a way to avoid
burdensome zoning law restrictions on their property use: “No government shall impose or
implement a land use regulation in a manner that imposes a substantial burden on the religious
exercise of a person, including a religious assembly or institution, unless the government
demonstrates that [the land use regulation is] in furtherance of a compelling governmental
interest [and] is the least restrictive means of furthering that compelling governmental interest.”
Addressing RLUIPA restrictions, courts have generally upheld that general zoning and land-use
restrictions apply to everyone (e.g. parking & traffic impacts); that churches may be excluded
from some districts (and need to comply with associated building codes); and that general
review processes apply to everyone.
APA Zoning Practice #10 (October 2010) Religious Institutions
https://www.planning.org/media/document/9006935/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Religious_Land_Use_and_Institutionalized_Persons_Act

(113) Degree levels on Arnstein’s Ladder are:
I. Citizen Power
II. Tokenism
III. Non-participation
IV. Community Involvement
(A) II, III
(B) I, II, IV
(C) III, IV
(D) I, II, III

(114) The integrated approach to planning and water resource management that is based upon
the idea that all water within a watershed is hydrologically interconnected is known as:
(A) Integrated water resource management
(B) One Water
(C) Sustainability
(D) (A) and (B)

The correct answer is “D”
APA PAS Report 582 - Planners and Water - rises to the challenge of growing cities, aging
infrastructure, changing climate, and a torrent of worry about water, with a fresh planning
approach known as “One Water” – because that is how water occurs in nature. “One Water”, a
simpler name for the paradigm known as Integrated Water Resource Management (IWRM),
looks at water supply, water quality, and stormwater as a single resource for planners to
manage. Water resource issues are now recognized to be highly interrelated with land
development. Population and employment growth have placed increased demands on often
scarce water supplies. Pollution and waste disposal practices have diminished the quality and
availability of water. The benefits of One Water include improved resource sustainability
(greater reliability, security, and resilience), conservation of natural waters and related
ecosystems, and flood avoidance. One Water management is a foundational element of the
American Planning Association’s Policy Guide on Water.
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/water/
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9131532/
https://www.waterrf.org/publicreportlibrary/4660.pdf

(115) The Mayor asks you, the Planning Director, to develop new regulations to protect
the Arcade historical district in your town. Your new regulations would likely include
considerations of these standards:
I. New additions and adjacent or related new construction shall be undertaken in such a
manner that if removed in the future, the essential form and integrity of the historic
property and its environment would be unimpaired.
II. All archeological resources affected by a project shall be protected, preserved and
remain undisturbed.
III. Most properties change over time; those changes that have acquired historic
significance in their own right shall be retained and preserved.
IV. New Additions, exterior alterations, or related new construction shall not destroy historic
materials that characterize the property. The new work shall be differentiated from the
old and shall be compatible with the massing, size, scale, and architectural features to
protect the historic integrity of the property and its environment.
(A) II, IV
(B) I, II, III
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “C”
The three correct standards are all from THE SECRETARY OF THE INTERIOR’S
STANDARDS FOR REHABILITATION. Option II. is incorrect as (1) Not all archaeological
resources must be protected – only ones deemed to have significant archaeological value; and
(2) both protection in place AND proper archaeological excavation are typically viable options
for the protection of significant archaeological resources. The actual standard reads “Significant
archeological resources affected by a project shall be protected and preserved. If such
resources must be disturbed, mitigation measures shall be undertaken”.
https://www.nps.gov/tps/standards/rehabilitation/rehab/stand.htm

(116) Homelessness increased in the U.S. during the 1990’s largely due to:
I. Declining rental assistance
II. Increasing de-institutionalization of mental patients
III. Housing costs outstripping personal income growth
IV. Increasing child care costs
A) I, II
B) II, III
C) I, III, IV
D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “D”
The APA Policy Guide on Homelessness indicates that “Several factors have contributed to the
rise in homelessness, including escalating housing costs since the 1980s that outstripped
personal income growth; accelerated loss of affordable housing stock and declining rental
assistance; and decreased affordability and availability of family support services, such as child
care. Other social changes including deindustrialization of our central cities, suburbanization,
and the resulting concentration of urban poverty, have created unsustainable communities and
housing markets.”
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/homelessness.htm

The correct answer is (B)
RLUIPA cautions local governments not to “substantially burden” a religious land-use
applicant’s right to free exercise. To date, the courts have generally found that the government
did not substantially burden the religious land-use applicant in three broad categories where:
1. General zoning and land-use restrictions apply to everyone.
EXAMPLE: Establishing a minimum 1,000-foot buffer requirement between
nonagricultural, nonresidential uses in an agricultural district “to protect, preserve,
and enhance the rural character and lifestyle of existing low-density areas and
agricultural use”
2. Churches are excluded from some districts.
EXAMPLE: Excluding all religious institutions from the central business district
3. General review processes apply to everyone.
EXAMPLE: Requiring religious homeless shelters to comply with the town’s building
code (like everyone else)
POTENIALLY PROBLEMATIC: Establishing a conditional use approval process for
certain religious institutions (e.g. Moslem; thereby treating them differently)
SOURCE: APA’s Religious Institutions; “Zoning Practice” (October 2010); APA’s Religious
Institutions; “Zoning Practice” (September 2008); APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards
(2006); p. 586

(118) All of the following are negative costs sometimes associated with citizen
participation except which one of these?
A) The inefficiency created in government because of the longer time to make a decision
when involving the public.
B) The fear of parochialism.
C) There could be increased cohesion of the community.
D) The representative form of government may be weakened.

The correct answer is “C”
There are some problems and benefits associated with citizen participation. Some costs may be
that due to a lengthened process, there may indeed some economic wastes. Another possible
cost may be that there is an inefficiency in government created because of the added groups.
There is also the thought that it may weaken the representative form of government.
Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the
American Institute of Certified Planners” Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American
Planning Association, “Citizen Participation in Planning” by Terry Langlois, AICP, Memphis TN,
pages 125-126.

(119) A model of city development that places the Central Business District in the center
of the city, and expanding outward away from it along transportation lines are zones
developing for industry and residential developments is known as the:
(A) Central Place model
(B) Concentric Zone model
(C) Sector model
(D) Transportation city model

The correct answer is “C”
Homer Hoyt wanted to provide an alternative to the concentric zone model as a way of
explaining urban land use. Ernest Burgess developed the concentric zone model in the 1920s
based on his studies of Chicago. Burgess’s model suggested that cities have zones arranged in
a series of concentric bands that expand outward from the CBD.
Hoyt argued that instead of concentric sets of neighborhoods, cities are primarily laid out in pie
or wedge-shaped zones and corridors developed from the core of the city to the outskirts. In the
Hoyt Sector Model, the CBD is still in the center, but expanding outward away from it along
transportation lines are zones used for industry and residential developments. For example, the
electric streetcar allowed low-income areas to extend from the CBD to the outer edge of the city.
Land use within each sector would remain the same because like attracts like. The high-class
sector would stay high-class because it would be the most sought after area to live, so only the
rich could afford to live there. The industrial sector would remain industrial as the area would
have a common advantage of a railway line or river.
https://www.albert.io/blog/hoyt-sector-model-ap-human-geography-crash-course/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sector_model
https://planningtank.com/settlement-geography/hoyt-model-sector-model-land-use-1939-homer-hoyt

(120) Which of the following factor into the site selection for a research and technological
(Smart) business park?
I. Education and labor force.
II. Crime and health services.
III. Cost of living.
IV. Transportation.
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) II, III, and IV
D) All of the Above.

The correct answer is “D”

(121) Lewis Mumford:
I. Together with Clarence Stein and Henry Wright, was the backbone of the Regional
Planning Association of America
II. Was the author of The Culture of Cities and The City in History
III. Named his son Geddes Mumford after the inspiration of his work, Patrick Geddes
IV. Was an American historian, sociologist and literary critic
(A) I, II
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “D”
Lewis Mumford, was an American historian, sociologist, philosopher of technology, and literary
critic. Particularly noted for his study of cities and urban architecture, he had a broad career as a
writer, and was heavily influenced by the work of Scottish theorist Sir Patrick Geddes, after
whom he named his son “Geddes”. The Regional Planning Association of America (RPAA) was
formed by Clarence Stein as an urban reform association in 1923. Stein, Benton MacKaye,
Lewis Mumford, Alexander Bing, and Henry Wright were the essential backbone of the RPAA.
Mumford contributed to the group by sharing his interest of Patrick Geddes’ ideas on regional
development and planning, and contributed his concepts of “a dispersed yet concentrated urban
culture integrated with nature” which were integrated along with MacKaye’s concepts into the
RPAA’s later projects. He wrote both The Culture of Cities and The City in History, which won
the 1962 U.S. National Book Award for Nonfiction.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lewis_Mumford
http://www.academia.edu/1161406/From_Patrick_Geddes_to_Lewis_Mumford_and_Beyond
https://ww2.odu.edu/ao/instadv/quest/CityAsCommunity.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regional_Planning_Association_of_America

(122) The mayor asks you, the Planning Director, to better plan Greenacres for the
ongoing silver tsunami of retiring baby boomers in your community. His directive
requires you to plan for the needs of those born:
(A) 1950-1965
(B) 1935-1955
(C) 1946-1964
(D) 1940-1960

The correct answer is “C”
The Baby Boomers are the generation that was born following World War II, generally from
1946 up to 1964, a time that was marked by an increase in birth rates. In the 1960s, as the
relatively large numbers of young people became teenagers and young adults, they, and those
around them, created a very specific rhetoric around their cohort, and the change they were
bringing about.
Generation X, commonly abbreviated to Gen X, is the generation born after the Western Post–
World War II baby boomers. Demographers, historians and commentators use birth dates
ranging from the early 1960s to the early 1980s.
The Silent Generation, also known as the Lucky Few, were the generation before the Baby
Boomers and were born from approximately 1925 until 1942. It includes some who fought in
World War II, most of those who fought the Korean War and many during the Vietnam War.

(123) According to census data, metropolitan areas are experiencing a renaissance due
to the influx of:
I. The Silent Generation
II. Retiring Baby Boomers
III. Workers with families
IV. Young professionals
(A) III
(B) IV
(C) II, IV
(D) III, IV

The correct answer is ”C”
New Census Bureau data shows that the American city is experiencing something of a
renaissance, driven primarily by migration into the center of the nation’s metropolitan areas.
According to the Census Bureau data, 2013 saw 2.3 million more people living in metro areas
than in 2012, with 269.9 million people now living in cities and their surrounding areas. Between
2012 and 2013, only 92 out of the country’s 381 metropolitan areas lost population. The shift in
population to America’s metro areas has been increasing since 2010, when the economic
recovery began picking up. The trend in city living is driven primarily by two groups: young
professionals and Baby Boomers, who are retiring and moving back to the cities they left when
they started families.
https://www.theatlantic.com/national/archive/2014/03/more-americans-moving-to-citiesreversing-the-suburban-exodus/359714/
https://www.forbes.com/sites/petesaunders1/2017/01/12/where-educated-millennials-aremoving/#91044ead3ccc
https://www.washingtonpost.com/local/2013/08/05/1a21c1b2-fba7-11e2-a369-
d1954abcb7e3_story.html?tid=hybrid_collaborative_1_na&utm_term=.d748163f427d

(124) The term used to describe temporary urban infill projects is known as:
I. Radical urbanism
II. Pop-Up urbanism
III. Temporary urbanism
IV. Brownfield
A) III
B) I, II, III
C) II, III
D) IV

The correct answer is “C”
Pop-Up Urbanism and Temporary Urbanism refer to the use of temporary urban infill projects.
The idea has its roots in urban tactics from the World’s Fairs of yesteryear to Christo’s public art
installations to of-the-moment interventions such as yarn bombing, guerilla gardening, and
turning abandoned pay phones into mini-libraries.
https://www.planning.org/planning/2011/apr/60urbanisms.htm
https://www.planning.org/planning/2011/apr/60urbanisms.htm
http://www.theatlanticcities.com/design/2012/05/rise-temporary-city/1865/

(125) The Village of Mariemont was designed by John Nolen, funded by Mary Emery, and
designated as a National Historic Landmark due to its classic town square, mix of
housing and placement of shops, schools, parks and entertainment venues. The design
of Mariemont:
I. Incorporated “White City” concepts
II. Was based on the English Garden City
III. Originated many of today’s “new urbanism” concepts
IV. Utilized design features from Frank Lloyd Wright’s “Broadacre City”
A) I, II
B) II, III
C) III, IV
D) II

The correct answer is “B”
John Nolen’s design of the Village of Mariemont in Cincinnati drew its inspiration from the
English Garden City and originated many of the “new urbanism” concepts being replicated by
communities throughout the nation today, as did other subsequent developments by John Nolen
in Florida.
https://www.planning.org/greatplaces/neighborhoods/2008/mariemont.htm
http://www.mariemontlifestyle.com/mary-emery-vision/
http://www.cnuflorida.org/nu_florida/roots.htm

(126) The economic shift-share analysis?
A) Compares the local economy to the regional or national economy to identify
specializations in the local economy
B) Identifies basic versus non-basic industry sectors within a region
C) Forecasts economic phenomena, such as income and employment
D) Determines the amount of regional job growth attributable to national trends versus
regional factors

The correct answer is “D”
Shift-share analysis is used to determine the amount of regional job growth that is attributable to
national trends versus unique regional factors. Shift share analysis is one way to evaluate the
strengths and weaknesses of a region’s industries. It provides a picture of how well the region’s
current mix of industries is performing and how well individual industries are doing. One of the
down sides of this type of analysis is that shift share analysis does not discount the effect of
abnormal events, like natural disasters and labor management disputes.
Location quotient compares the local economy to a reference economy, in the process
attempting to identify specializations in the local economy. It does NOT assume that ALL
employment in each industry is Basic or Non-Basic. Economic base projections are used to
project employment within local industry sectors using a base multiplier computed from
historical data. Econometric projection models are used to forecast economic phenomena such
as income and employment using regression analysis.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shift-share_analysis
Chapter Presidents’ Council Study Manual for the AICP exam, page 178

(127) Which of the following has the largest FAR?
(A) One acre 20-story building on a 4-acre lot
(B) A 4-story building entirely covering a ¼ acre lot
(C) One acre 12-story building on a 2-acre lot
(D) A 2-story building entirely covering ½ acre lot

The correct answer is (C)
FAR = floor area ratio = building area / lot area. The FARs for (A) = 5 [20 acres of building/4
acre lot]; (B) = 4 [4 story bldg. on ¼ acre/ ¼ acre]; (C) = 6 [12 acres of building/2 acre lot]; (D) =
2 [2 story bldg. on ½ acre / ½ acre].

(128) Which of the following best describes a Datum?
(A) The memory of a computer
(B) The signature date on a deed
(C) A line, point, or surface from which elevations are measured or indicated
(D) The decision of a court for the plaintiff

The correct answer is “C”
A Geodetic datum or geodetic system is a coordinate system, and a set of reference points,
used to locate places on the Earth, often used in GIS systems, such as North American Datum
of 1927 (NAD27).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geodetic_datum
http://support.esri.com/en/knowledgebase/GISDictionary/term/datum

(129) Woonerf is an example of a:
A) Transportation multi-modal technique
B) Sustainable Neighborhood Plan
C) Covered children’s playground
D) LEED-ND neighborhood

The correct answer is “A”
A “woonerf” is a street where pedestrians and cyclists have legal priority over motorists. In a
woonerf, people on bikes and on foot have access to the whole street, not just sidewalks.
Moreover, the street functions as a public living room, where adults gather and children play
safely because vehicle speed is kept to a minimum.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Woonerf
http://streetswiki.wikispaces.com/Woonerf

(130) The Town of Germantown desires to establish a new land use regulation scheme
based on more flexible, specific standards for better wetland protection, while limiting
the effects of development on nearby roadways, water and sewer infrastructure. As
Planning Director, you propose:
(A) Incentive Zoning
(B) Performance Zoning
(C) Transect Zoning
(D) Smart Code

The best answer is “B”
Performance zoning–land use regulation based upon the application of specific performance
standards–represents another alternative to traditional zoning. Performance zoning provides for
greater flexibility, avoiding the detailed specification of acceptable uses for specific parcels
inherent in traditional zoning. Under performance zoning, land development and use are
regulated by a series of performance standards relating to specific impacts of a proposed
development. Performance standards can, for example, limit the intensity of development,
control the impacts of development on nearby land uses, limit the effects of development on
public infrastructure, and protect the natural environment. Performance standards can be
negative or positive. They can set a maximum level for the noise impacts on adjacent property
or they can require specified types of buffers to be established between certain types of land
uses. In its purest form, performance zoning may allow all possible land uses and establish a
uniform system of performance standards throughout a jurisdiction. Some systems of
performance zoning, however, do provide for the specification of a relatively small number of
more generalized zones, with some broad restrictions on types of use and different performance
standards in the different zones (Kendig, 1980).
http://www-pam.usc.edu/volume1/v1i1a4s4.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zoning#Types_of_Zoning
https://www.planning.org/divisions/planningandlaw/propertytopics.htm

(131) Which of the following planning processes and programs would a community
undertake first to promote “Sustainability”?
A) Developing a future-oriented community vision through advance planning that looks
beyond current needs and recognizes environmental limits to human development.
B) Making planning decisions in a holistic and fully informed manner that involves all
segments of the community and the public and private sectors.
C) Fostering projects/activities that promote economic development by efficiently and
equitably distributing resources and goods; minimizing, reusing and recycling waste; and
protecting natural ecosystems.
D) Educating all age groups to raise public understanding of, and regard for, the future
consequences of current planning decisions and ultimately changing human behavior.

The correct answer is A)
Development of a future-oriented community vision through advance planning would provide the
foundation for the programs and activities described in the other answers.

(132) Otter Falls is beginning to experience rapid growth development pressures. As
Planning Director, you advise the Mayor that you will be undertaking a Visioning process
as a prelude to changing the comprehensive plan, so that community members can
determine what they want their community to become. You plan to begin with the
following citizen involvement step:
(A) Develop goals and strategies for the visioning
(B) Hold a community workshop
(C) Develop community indicators
(D) Prepare a visioning action plan

The correct answer is “B”
Visioning often begins with a workshop to start a citizen’s discussion of the community’s vision
that will ultimately lead to an action plan on how to accomplish that vision. An extensive
visioning effort may involve citizen task forces on individual topics (e.g. housing, land uses,
transportation, education, etc.). Five questions that visioning attempts to answer are:
* Where is the community now (existing conditions)?
* Where is it going (trends)?
* Where does it want to go (Vision, alternative or preferred scenarios)?
* How can it get there (Action Plan, broad strategies)?
* Is it getting there (Community indicators/Benchmarks)?
APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards, pp. 55-56
https://books.google.com/books?id=NXpncFYj73QC&pg=PA39&lpg=PA39&dq=New+Oregon+
model+visioning&source=bl&ots=L4aXd_NO6U&sig=grVlgzy–
y7eZqpurSRJHqN30PA&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjo88LvwZ7XAhUJQyYKHXRDA_UQ6AEI
WTAL#v=onepage&q=New%20Oregon%20model%20visioning&f=false
http://jfsdigital.org/wp-content/uploads/2014/01/152-S05.pdf
http://apa-nc.org/wp-content/uploads/2014/04/Comp-and-Strategic-Planning.pdf

(133) Many communities recognize the value of historic resources as major contributions
to the quality of life and to cultural vitality, and as resources that stimulate economic
vitality and the potential for tourism. All of the following would be considered essential
components in a local government historic preservation program except?
I. Financial incentives to encourage rehabilitation and restoration.
II. Cooperative educational efforts with the private sector and citizen groups.
III. Adaptive reuse policies supported by tax or other incentives.
IV. Adopting a uniform design scheme (i.e. turn-of-the-century) for reconstruction of building
facades on historic structures.
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) IV only

The correct answer is D)
The answer was derived from a familiarity with APA’s Policy Guides. Answers I, II and III from
the first tier could all be essential components in a local government historic preservation
program. Answer IV is incorrect. Remodeling the front of historic structures with a set motif
would likely ruin the historic value of the structures.

(134) A geographic area in which the market value of real estate is enhanced due to the
influence of a public improvement and in which a tax is apportioned to recover the costs
of the public improvement is known as:
(A) Business Improvement District
(B) Tax Increment Financing
(C) Community Development Corporation
(D) A Special Assessment District

The correct answer is “D”
A Special Assessment District is a geographic area in which the market value of real estate is
enhanced due to the influence of a public improvement and in which a tax is apportioned to
recover the costs of the public improvement. The tool is flexible: it can be applied to commercial
or industrial property only, or it can include residential land uses. Tax rates can be constant or
can vary over time. The districts are being set up in both suburban and downtown contexts and
are funding a wide variety of transit types, from heavy rail to streetcars to bus rapid transit
(BRT).
Special assessment districts for transit, like tax increment financing (TIF), are a type of valuecapture financing. Both tap into the real estate value created by infrastructure investments. With
TIF, however, governments hold tax rates constant and use expected bumps in tax revenues
from increased property values to finance the debt for the project. Special assessment districts
are more direct and less risky. By increasing the property tax rate, they capture a guaranteed
portion of current property value in addition to a portion of future increases in property value. TIF
usually requires a designation of blight, but special assessment districts do not; this makes
special assessment districts an important funding tool for economically healthy communities
looking to invest in their future.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special_assessment_tax
https://urbanland.uli.org/industry-sectors/infrastructure-transit/using-special-assessments-tofund-transit-investments/

(135) Which of the following boards is most likely to conduct a site plan review of an
industrial park development?
A) Planning Commission
B) Zoning Board of Appeals
C) Economic Development Board
D) Code Enforcement Office

The correct answer is A)
The site plan review process varies from community to community, but of the boards noted
above, the Planning Commission is the most likely board to conduct or, at least, coordinate the
industrial park’s site plan review. It is possible, however, that all of the agencies noted above
are involved, to some degree, in the site plan review.

(136) What was the result of the Kelo supreme court decision:
I. The court later reversed its original decision
II. Upheld the use of eminent domain for the first time
III. States restricted the use of eminent domain for redevelopment
IV. Upheld the governmental use of eminent domain to transfer of land from one private
owner to another private owner to further economic development
(A) II
(B) III, IV
(C) I, III, IV
(D) II, III

The correct answer is “B”
In a 5-4 opinion delivered by Justice John Paul Stevens, the majority held that the city’s taking of
private property to sell for private development qualified as a “public use” within the meaning of the
takings clause. Kelo v. City of New London did not establish entirely new law concerning
eminent domain. Although the decision was controversial, it was not the first time “public use”
had been interpreted by the Supreme Court as “public purpose”. In the majority opinion, Justice
Stevens wrote the “Court long ago rejected any literal requirement that condemned property be
put into use for the general public” [i.e. Berman v. Parker (1954)].
However, public reaction to the decision was highly unfavorable. As a result, many states
changed their eminent domain laws. Prior to the Kelo decision, only eight states specifically
prohibited the use of eminent domain for economic development except to eliminate blight.
Since the decision, forty-four states have amended their eminent domain laws. Of those states,
22 enacted laws that severely inhibited the takings allowed by the Kelo decision, while the rest
enacted laws that place some limits on the power of municipalities to invoke eminent domain for
economic development. The remaining eight states have not passed laws to limit the power of
eminent domain for economic development.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kelo_v._City_of_New_London
https://www.oyez.org/cases/2004/04-108

(137) In the 2010 Census, the fastest growing state over the previous decade was:
A) Arizona
B) Nevada
C) Texas
D) New Mexico

The correct answer is “B”
Nevada was the fastest-growing state between 2000 and 2010, growing by 35.1 percent (see
Table 1 in link below). It was followed by Arizona (24.6 percent), Utah (23.8 percent), Idaho
(21.1 percent), and Texas (20.6 percent).
http://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/c2010br-01.pdf

(138) Net Land Area is described as…
A) the entire site
B) the land below the ground level
C) the entire site minus the undevelopable land
D) None of the above

The correct answer is “C”
Net land area for the purpose of computing density/intensity is typically that total land area
within the property boundaries of a subject parcel, exclusive of any undevelopable lands (e.g.
submerged land or public road right-of-way).
http://www.co.pinellas.fl.us/ppc/maps/newcwp/60dayappxb.pdf

(139) According to the 2010 census, the fastest growing metropolitan statistical area in
the U.S. was:
(A) Palm Coast, Florida
(B) The Villages, Florida
(C) Houston, Texas
(D) Los Vegas, Nevada

The correct answer is “A”
Among all 366 metro areas, Palm Coast, FL, was the fastest-growing between 2000 and 2010
(up 92.0 percent); Las Vegas grew by 41.8% and Houston by 26.1%. The Villages, located to
the west of the Orlando metro area, grew by 5.4 percent between July 1, 2013, and July 1,
2014, to reach a population of about 114,000, and was the nation’s fastest growing metro area
from 2013 to 2014, according to U.S. Census Bureau metropolitan statistical area, micropolitan
statistical area and county population estimates released in 2015.
https://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/c2010br-01.pdf
http://www.census.gov/newsroom/press-releases/2015/cb15-56.html

(140) To obtain the highest score in a Walkscore, an amenity must be within
approximately:
A) 1/10 mile
B) 1/5 mile
C) 1/4 mile
D) 1/2 mile

The correct answer is “C”
The Walk Score algorithm awards points based on the distance to the closest amenity in each
category. If the closest amenity in a category is within ¼ mile, the maximum number of points is
awarded. The number of points declines as the distance approaches 1 mile — no points are
awarded for amenities further than 1 mile away. Relevant amenities include businesses, parks,
theaters, schools and other common destinations.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Walk_Score

(141) As the newly appointed planning director in the small town of Sugar Grove. Your
wife is also the new owner of a gardening store that is applying for the construction of a
large green house to be built adjacent to the store. This will need to be reviewed by the
planning commission for approval. In this example, you should do which of the
following:
A) You should craft an extensive staff report about the benefits of the greenhouse for the
community, referencing the potential classes that could be taught there.
B) Invite the planning commission to try and grow flowers and plants outdoors in the winter
months.
C) Ask your wife to offer complimentary “flowers for a year” to all Planning Commissioners.
D) Inform the Commission about your connection to the case and remove yourself from the
review process.

The correct answer is “D”
As the Planning Director, you should inform the Planning Commission about your connection to
the petitioner as well as the case, and remove yourself from the planning review process. There
could be a perceived conflict of interest if you were a deciding factor in the review and approval
of the project.

(142) The doctrine of inverse condemnation is predicated on which of the following
propositions?
A) a taking can occur without a formal eminent domain proceeding
B) use of private land by the public for 30 years or more results in public ownership
C) local government has no authority to condemn private property
D) only the state can exercise eminent domain powers

The correct answer is A)
Inverse condemnation refers to the process of so regulating private property that in fact, a taking
of property rights occurs without fair compensation.

(143) Your coastal county has suddenly been experiencing explosive growth, coupled
with the current inability of your local government to fund needed infrastructure to
support that new growth. However, because of the ongoing gentrification and rising
house prices, your community has also been experiencing significant difficulties with the
availability of housing for senior citizens, students, and unmarried public workers (i.e.
teachers, fire fighters, police, etc.). The Planning Director has been directed to find a
solution to these issues, and she assigns you to bring her back recommendations on
how to resolve these issues within the next two weeks. Among your recommendations
would be analyses of the following tools:
I. Requiring new development to be totally responsible for all needed infrastructure
II. Allowing accessory housing
III. Constructing exclusionary public housing
IV. Passing new development impact and linkage fees
(A) I, IV
(B) II, IV
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is (B)
Option “I” may violate the dual nexus tests of Nollan and Dolan by requiring new development to
be TOTALLY responsible for ALL needed infrastructure, which may exceed the “rough
proportionality” of their impacts (e.g. a project may be projected to only impact 5% of the
roadway capacity of a new roadway improvement). Option “III” may be illegal.
FOR MORE INFORMATION - see: APA’s Accessory Housing: “Zoning Practice” (July 2012);
APA’S PAS Report 561: Fiscal Impact Analysis: Methodologies for Planners (2010); p. 5; Local
Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practice (2009); p. 380

(144) The capitalization rate for a property listed at $1,000,000 and generating a net
income of $100,000 would be:
(A) 10%
(B) 90%
(C) 10
(D) $100,000

The correct answer is “A”
The capitalization rate, often just called the cap rate, is the ratio of Net Operating Income (NOI)
to property asset value. So, for example, if a property was listed for $1,000,000 and generated
an NOI of $100,000, then the cap rate would be $100,000/$1,000,000, or 10%.
annual net operating income
CAPITALIZATION RATE = cost (value)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Capitalization_rate
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/capitalizationrate.asp?lgl=myfinance-layout-no-ads
https://www.propertymetrics.com/blog/2013/06/03/cap-rate/

(145) What is the term for the statutory requirement that “No county shall incur any
indebtedness…exceeding in any year the income and revenue provided for such year”?
A) long term debt
B) short term debt
C) balanced budget requirement
D) all of the above

The correct answer is C)
The above requirement is a debt limitation law, requiring that the county not incur indebtedness
in any year that exceeds its income and revenue for that year.

(146) In a zero-based budget?
(A) Every budget item is rounded off to the nearest hundred.
(B) Each budget item must justify itself on its present merits, without resources to past
budgets.
(C) Expenditures are based on the performance of activities.
(D) Every budget item is evaluated on a scale from zero to ten.

The correct answer is “B”
Zero Base Budgeting starts from “scratch” every year. All programs have to justify their
existence through analyses called decision packages. Budgets are then built around what is
needed for the upcoming period, regardless of whether the budget is higher or lower than the
previous one.
Advantages:
* Accuracy: This type of budgeting requires companies to look over every department to
make sure they are getting the correct amount of money.
* Efficiency: It helps judge actual need by focusing on current numbers instead of past
budgets.
* Reduction in wasteful spending: It can remove redundant spending by reexamining
potentially unnecessary expenditures.
* Coordination and Communication: It allows for better communication within departments
by involving employees in decision-making and budget prioritization.
Disadvantages:
* Bureaucracy: Creating ZBB within a company can take enormous amounts of time,
effort, and analysis that would require extra staff. This could cause the process to be
counter productive in cutting costs.
* Corruption: In using ZBB, managers could attempt to skew numbers to make
expenditures into vital activities, thus creating a “need” for them. This would cause
companies to continue wasting money on things they don’t need.
* Intangible Justifications: This type of budgeting requires departments to justify their
budget, which can be difficult on many levels. Departments such as advertising and
marketing have to justify expenses they may or may not use in the next year due to the
fluctuation of the market. This could cost them profits in the future due to not being able
to justify a certain amount.
* Managerial Time: ZBB comes at the cost of time and extra training for managers. This
means extra time every year to do the budget, make adjustments, and receive the
proper training to understand how to do ZBB.
* Slower Response Time: Due to the amount of time and training is required to do ZBB,
managerial staff could be less likely to revise the budget in response to a changing
market. This means that it will take longer for a company to move money into
departments that need it the most at the time. ZBB could potentially leave gaps in a
company because the budget might not react to departments’ sudden needs.
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/z/zbb.asp
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero-based_budgeting

(147) Higher gasoline prices since 2000 tend to create a modal shift to:
I. Road transport
II. Water Transport
III. Air Transport
IV. Rail Transport
(A) IV
(B) I, III
(C) II, IV
(D) II, III, IV

The correct answer is “C”
Since 2000 fuel prices gave increased significantly as well as their volatility, illustrated by
significant price declines in 2009 and 2015. All modes are affected by fuel price volatility, from
the individual car owner to the corporation operating a fleet of hundreds of aircraft or ships.
Different pricing mechanisms are used namely direct rate adjustments, as is the case of
shipping, or indirect adjustments as is the case of airlines, with the reliance on fuel surcharges
when energy prices are increasing. Because the impact of higher fuel costs hits the modes
differentially, a modal shift is anticipated. Road and air transport are more fuel intensive than
the other modes, and so fuel price increases are likely to impact upon them more severely than
other modes. This can lead to a shift towards water and rail transport in particular.
https://people.hofstra.edu/geotrans/eng/ch3en/conc3en/ch3c1en.html

(148) The Low Income Housing Tax Credit:
I. Is implemented by state agencies and the IRS
II. Caused an increase in the rise of home ownership
III. Provides inexpensive public housing, but does not accept vouchers
IV. Is used by developers in attracting equity capital
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) I, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, II

The correct answer is “B”
The Low Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC) program, the nation’s largest affordable housing
subsidy program, is not administered by HUD, and was passed as part of the Tax Reform Act of
1986 to encourage equity capital investment in multifamily housing for those in need of rent
restricted affordable housing. LIHTC owners may not refuse to rent to Rental Voucher holders,
and because tax credits are competitively allocated, states may impose more restrictive
requirements than the federal program minimums. The LIHTC provides funding for the
development costs of low-income housing by allowing an investor (usually the partners of a
partnership that owns the housing) to take an IRS federal tax credit equal to a percentage (up to
70 percent or 30 percent of PV depending on the credit type) of the cost incurred for
development of the low-income units in a rental housing project. To take advantage of the
LIHTC, a developer will typically propose a project to a state agency, seek and win a
competitive allocation of tax credits, complete the project, certify its cost, and rent the project to
low income tenants.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Low-Income_Housing_Tax_Credit
http://nnedv.org/downloads/Thousing/NHLP_LIHousingTaxCredit_Nov2012.pdf

(149) Which of the following aspirational principles of the Code would benefit from the
use of social media?
I. Increase public understanding of planning activities.
II. Give people the opportunity to have meaningful impact on development.
III. Ensure that there is training for citizens on planning matters.
IV. Provide timely, adequate, clear and accurate information on planning issues.
A) I, II, IV
B) I, III
C) II, III, IV
D) II, IV

The correct answer is “A”
III is not an aspirational principle in the code. All of the others are in the code and would clearly
benefit from social media efforts by planners.

(150) In the 2010 Census, the state with the largest numeric population increase over the
previous decade was:
A) Nevada
B) Florida
C) Texas
D) California

The correct answer is “C”
Texas experienced the largest population increase between 2000 and 2010, growing by over
four million in population (see Table 1 in link below). It was followed by California (over 3
million), Florida (over 2 million), Georgia (over 1.5 million), and North Carolina (just under 1.5
million). Michigan was the only state to lose population.
http://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/c2010br-01.pdf

(151) What planning process: 1) focuses on selected issues, 2) considers resource
availability, 3) considers major events and changes occurring outside of the
organization, 4) assesses strengths and weaknesses, 5) is action oriented with emphasis
on practical results, and 6) is strongly participatory using a consensus of the best minds
for decision making?
(A) Comprehensive planning.
(B) Advocacy planning.
(C) Strategic Planning.
(D) Implementation planning.

The correct answer is “C”
Strategic planning is an organization’s process of defining its strategy, or direction, and making
decisions on allocating its resources to pursue this strategy. SWOT Analysis (Strengths,
Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) is central to strategic planning. This strategic analysis is
the key stage for flushing out the major strategic issues to be addressed in the strategic plan.
These strategic issues are few in number, and huge in the importance to the performance of the
organization. With these elephant like issues clearly identified from the SWOT, a planning team
can devise strategies to achieve the organization’s overall purpose, within a specific bracket of
targets.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strategic_planning
http://www.simply-strategic-planning.com/swot-analysis.html

(152) Which is the BEST definition of Transect Planning?
A) Transect Planning involves zoning for mixed use within walking distance of
transportation nodes.
B) Transect Planning places the highest densities in the town center and less and less
density towards the edge.
C) Transect Planning creates buffers or boundaries between built environments, often
based on environmental features.
D) Transect Planning is based upon centering high density areas near transportation
nodes.

The correct answer is “B”
Transect Planning is a term, created through the New Urbanism movement that deals with the
following elements: 1) The highest density is in the town center, and as you move outwards
towards the edges there is less density; 2) It is an analytical system that creates a series of
specific natural habitats or urban lifestyle settings; 3) The resulting urban to rural transect
hierarchy has appropriate building and street types for each area.
Source: www.newurbanism.com

(153) You are a planner for a city planning department and you have an old friend who
runs a planning consulting firm in the same city. Your friend submits a competitive
proposal to work as a consultant for your department to you on Friday and while in your
office, asks you to be her guest for dinner at a very fancy restaurant on Saturday
evening. What should you do if you actually have no influence about awarding the
contract?
A) Go to dinner, as there is no conflict of interest
B) Go to dinner, but pay for your own dinner
C) Go to dinner, but make sure not to discuss the proposal
D) Decline going to dinner

The correct answer is D)
You should worry about the appearance of a conflict of interest, even if the invitation
for dinner is not intended to enhance your friend’s chances of being awarded the
contract (Rules of Conduct 5, 8, 19). Because you have no influence about the
decision to award the contract, which would include having no professional contact
with the decision-makers, you might have dinner with your friend, but it might be
safer to postpone the dinner until after the contract has been awarded.

(154) What is the definition of “the surface and subsurface area surrounding a water well
or wellfield, supplying a public water system through which contaminants are reasonably
likely to move”?
A) wellhead protection area
B) watershed
C) an aquifer
D) The Safe Drinking Water Act

The correct answer is A)
The extent of the wellhead protection area was left up to individual state and local governments
by the 1986 Amendments to the Safe Drinking Water Act.

(155) According to the 2010 Census, the region which grew fastest was the:
(A) West
(B) Northeast
(C) South
(D) Midwest

The correct answer is “C”
According to the 2010 Census, regional growth was much faster for the South and West (14.3
and 13.8 percent, respectively) than for the Midwest (3.9 percent) and Northeast (3.2 percent).
http://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/c2010br-01.pdf

(156) Urban design techniques to calm traffic include:
I. Deflecting (introducing curvature to) the vehicle path
II. Revising the posted speed downward
III. Narrowing the real or apparent width of the street
IV. Altering the vertical profile of the vehicle path
(A) I, II
(B) III, IV
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “C“
The question asks for design techniques – lowering the speed limit is not a “design” technique.
http://www.massdot.state.ma.us/portals/8/docs/designguide/ch_16.pdf

(157) A principal planner is processing a proposed increase in residential density from
2.5 units per acre of single family homes to 6 units per acre Planned Unit Development.
Which cost-analysis method would he use to determine the financial impact of the
increase in density on public services?
(A) Cost-benefit analysis
(B) Economic base analysis
(C) Fiscal Impact analysis
(D) Input-Output modeling

The correct answer is “C”
Fiscal impact analysis determines whether a particular project or scale of development within a
community will generate sufficient revenues to defray the necessary public service costs. Used
to evaluate overall financial implications to local governments of alternative patterns and
densities of land development.
https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026994/
http://www.floridaplanning.org/wp-content/uploads/2014/09/Fiscal_Neutrality-Pt-1JamieSchindewolf.pdf
http://www.sjsu.edu/faculty/watkins/fiscalimpact.htm

(158) Which of the following are true about the planning process in most jurisdictions?
I. The planning office and staff make recommendations to the governing body
II. The planning office and staff have final authority on planning decisions
III. Planners establish policies first and then determine goals and objectives
IV. A body of appointed citizens, such as a planning commission, oversees comprehensive
plans
(A) I & IV
(B) I, II
(C) I, II, & III
(D) II, IV

The correct answer is “A”
Planning staff make recommendations but the governing body has final authority. Planners
establish goals and objectives before determining policies. Planning staff generally report to an
appointed body that acts as a balance to short term elected officials.

(159) The Federal Telecommunications Act of 1996 limits the authority of local
governments to apply zoning regulations to proposed wireless communications
facilities. Which of the statements below is not a requirement of the Telecommunications
Act?
A) the municipality may not regulate the height of proposed wireless communications
facilities
B) the municipality may not prohibit proposed wireless services facilities
C) the municipality may not discriminate between providers of wireless services
D) the municipality may not regulate proposed wireless communications facilities regarding
the potential health effects of radio-frequency emissions

The correct answer is A)
Section 332(C)(7)(B) of the Federal Telecommunications Act of 1996 prohibits municipalities
from: 1) prohibiting wireless services, 2) discriminating among providers of wireless services,
and 3) regulating based upon potential health effects of wireless facilities.

(160) Some highlights of SAFETEA-LU include:
I. Gave states more flexibility to use road pricing to manage congestion
II. Safe routes to school program
III. Elimination of Earmarks
IV. Earmarks
(A) I, II
(B) II, III
(C) I, IV
(D) II, IV

The correct answer is “A”
The Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users (Pub.L.
109–59; SAFETEA-LU) was a funding and authorization bill that governed United States federal
surface transportation spending, signed into law by President George W. Bush on August 10,
2005. SAFETEA-LU addressed many transportation challenges such as improving safety,
reducing traffic congestion, improving efficiency in freight movement, increasing intermodal
connectivity, and protecting the environment. SAFETEA-LU gives States more options for using
road pricing to manage congestion (i.e. congestion pricing). It also established a new core
Highway Safety Improvement Program that funded a Safe Route To School program. Answer
IV was established in the earlierTEA21, and subsequently removed in the later MAP21 (i.e.
answer III).
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Safe,_Accountable,_Flexible,_Efficient_Transportation_Equity_Act:_A_Legacy_for_Users
https://www.fhwa.dot.gov/safetealu/summary.htm
https://www.fhwa.dot.gov/tea21/summary.htm
https://www.fhwa.dot.gov/map21/summaryinfo.cfm

(161) According to Randall Arendt’s “Rural By Design”, what is not a principal
characteristic of traditional small towns:
A) “downtown” centers with street-edge buildings
B) residential neighborhoods, close to town, but removed from commercial uses and other
potential nuisances
C) civic open spaces within, and rural open spaces at the edge
D) medium density (somewhere in-between that of cities and sprawling suburbs)

The correct answer is “B”.
Small towns typically have residential neighborhoods within or mixed with commercial uses.

(162) The City Manager and Chamber of Chamber of Commerce disagree over how the
local economy has declined. The City Manager feels the Chamber of Commerce
marketing strategies have failed to attract new employment opportunities to the region.
The Chamber of Commerce contends that trends in the national economy have impacted
local businesses. What method would you use to resolve this argument?
(A) Location Quotient.
(B) Input-Output Analysis.
(C) Shift-Share.
(D) Economic Base.

The correct answer is “C”
Shift share analysis is one way to evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of a region’s
industries. It provides a picture of how well the region’s current mix of industries is performing
and how well individual industries are doing. The analysis examines three components of
regional employment growth between two periods of time: national growth, industry mix and
competitiveness. The three components are summed to obtain the total change in employment
of a particular industry. The degree to which the change in the number of jobs in a local
industry is attributable to change in a larger area of which it is a part is determined by
calculating the state or national growth component.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shift-share_analysis
For more details, see 2014-2015 CPC Study Guide, pages 177-180

(163) The long form of the US Census in 2000 collected which of the following data in
addition to the short form questionnaire?
I) Marital status
II) Labor force status (current)
III) Number of bedrooms
IV) Value of home
A) I, II
B) II, III, IV
C) I, III, IV
D) I, II, III, IV

The correct answer is “D”
The long-form questionnaire is used to collect more detailed information from approximately one
in six households. In addition to all of the 100-percent data, the long-form questionnaire for
Census 2000 collected sample data on the social and economic characteristics of the
population and the physical and financial characteristics of housing.

(164) The preservation of historic structures can best be assured by:
(A) Asking owners of historic properties to renovate them and to avoid demolition
(B) Creating historic preservation districts that govern the use and maintenance of
contributing buildings in the district
(C) Developing a historic properties inventory and including it in the Comprehensive Plan
(D) Creating a commission to publicize the historic character of these structures

The correct answer is “B”
The designation of a historic district and the imposition of special architectural controls are ways
to integrate historic-preservation controls into a zoning ordinance. This regulates the treatment
of historic buildings rather than depending on voluntary or informational means alone.

(165) What land use has the highest traffic/trip peak in morning and late afternoon?
(A) Residential
(B) Office
(C) Retail
(D) Industrial

(166) Which is the least responsible for homelessness?
(A) Rent control
(B) Housing supply
(C) Housing costs
(D) Unemployment

The correct answer is “A”
Rent “control” (i.e. a system of rent regulation, administered by a court or a public authority,
which limits the changes that can be made in the price of renting a house or apartment as a
means of controlling the prices of rent and often counteract the inequality of bargaining power
between landlords and tenant) is not typically a cause of homelessness.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rent_control
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/homelessness.htm

(167) Which of the following land-use models describes the pattern of axial growth along
lines of least resistance?
(A) Multiple nuclei model
(B) Concentric zone model
(C) Sector model
(D) Negative exponential population density model

The correct answer is C)
On the basis of studying 142 American cities, Homer Hoyt (1939) argued that, contrary to the
concentric zone model, the city’s urban geometry is better described by a sector pattern of land
development. The distributions of rents and the city’s socioeconomic status groups are
organized in hom*ogeneous, pie shaped wedges or sectors that run from the city’s CBD to the
periphery. The characteristic land use, activity mix, and population composition for any sector
are different from those sectors adjacent to it. The sector model is based on an axial
conception of the city. It incorporates Richard Hurd’s 1924 idea that growth and development
first take place along main transportation routes from the city’s center to the hinterland; these
include rail lines, highways, and navigable bodies of water. At some point, it becomes cheaper
in travel time and money to develop the open land between the axes than to continue the
outward push along the axes. As the area between the axes becomes filled, another cycle
begins with development shifting to the axes again and pushing out along them into the
undeveloped hinterland.
http://sociology.iresearchnet.com/urban-sociology/ecological-models-of-urban-form/

(168) A city condemns a landowner’s property in order to stop blight from further
extending into other areas of the City. The City intends to clear the land and resell it to
another private owner who is willing to construct new commercial space. The same City
condemns another private site for a parking garage to be constructed by the City and
leased to a private operator. The operator is free to set parking rates at any level and may
use part of the property for a restaurant.
How would a federal court react to the “parking garage” condemnation?
A) They would defer to the city’s own legislative judgment.
B) They would require the parking lot maintain in public ownership.
C) They would require the parking lot maintain in public ownership and establish parking
rates determined to be fair and reasonable.
D) This case would not go before a federal court

The correct answer is “A”
Berman vs. Parker (1954) and, now, Kelo vs. London (2005) establish the underlying case law
in which all legislative bodies determine the appropriateness of eminent domain. In this case,
the Federal court would defer to the City’s legislative judgment that the parking garage is
serving a public benefit. The fact that a private party is going to operate the garage and set the
rates is of little concern to the federal court. However, a state court might invalidate the city’s
actions because of the more demanding view of public use required under state law, the
presence of the private enterprise that may be prohibited under state eminent domain laws, or
the fact that the city lacks control over the parking rates.

(169) A private sector planner is preparing a site plan for a small 20 home residential
community that is part of a much larger residential golf course development. She intends
to secure local government approval for her client’s development, since it could lead to
additional work for her in the future phases of the golf course project. According to the
AICP Code of Ethics:
A) There is no conflict of interest since she is not a public sector planner.
B) She can only work on 25% of the entire development without declaring an economic
interest in the project.
C) There is a conflict of interest only if she purchases a home within the development within
One year.
D) This definitely constitutes a conflict of interest.

The correct answer is “A”
Because she is a Private sector planner, there is no conflict of interest. If she were a public
sector planner who was only approving the first phase of the project in hopes that she would be
able to acquire a job with the developer in the near future or be able to work on the future parts
of this specific project, then there could be a potential of a conflict of interest.

(170) A community with an aging population is reconsidering its land use and housing
policies to promote aging in place. Such considerations may include:
I. Promoting granny flats
II. Relaxing development standards for nursing homes
Ill. Improving transit services to residential neighborhoods
IV. Providing loans and grants for accessibility improvements at homes
A. I and IV only
B. I, II, and Ill only
C. I, Ill, and IV only
D. All of above

The correct answer is “C”
Relaxing development standards for nursing homes is not an Aging in Place strategy. The
Center for Disease Control defines aging in place as “the ability to live in one’s own home and
community safely, independently, and comfortably, regardless of age, income, or ability level.
Options I, III and IV help accomplish that.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aging_in_place
http://www.aarp.org/content/dam/aarp/livable-communities/plan/planning/aging-in-place-a-toolkit-for-local-governments-aarp.pdf